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Exam Code: 190-802
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes 8 System Administration Update)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
128 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 In general, how much space will a DB2 enabled Notes database utilize as compared to a replica in the
standard NSF format?
A. Equal size
B. Half the size
C. Two times more
D. Four times more
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to
configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

Lotus certification   190-802   190-802

NO.3 Which of the following determines which features are available during Lotus Notes install, update, and
remove functions?
A. Site.xml
B. Smart upgrade
C. Desktop policy
D. Install manifest
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Lotus Notes 8 and integrated Sametime client may access the provisioning server through which
of the following methods?
A. SSL only
B. HTTP only
C. HTTP and NRPC
D. SSL and SSO only
Answer: B

Lotus test   190-802   190-802

NO.5 Which of the following mail features are not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following type of permanent failure response is sent when you enable the Domino server
to reject ambiguous names through directory lookups against the primary Domino directory?
A. Mailbox unavailable
B. The recipient is unknown
C. The mail server is unavailable
D. The recipient is rejected for policy reasons
Answer: D

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NO.7 Satchel, the Domino administrator, is attempting to implement design note compression on the
resource database. He is unable, though, to see the property selection to enable this feature. Which of the
following is preventing him from seeing this selection in the database properties box?
A. He is not manager of the database
B. He has not deferred index creation
C. He has not enabled the new Domino 8 ODS
D. He does not have the designer client installed on his workstation
Answer: C

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NO.8 The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions for DB2.
Which of the following are enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A. Replication
B. DB2 group locking
C. ACLs and reader lists
D. DB2 container storage
Answer: C

Lotus   190-802   190-802

NO.9 An organization has sent you a copy of their update site database for you to import. However, all of the
features that are embedded point to their server over HTTP. Your company will not allow the Notes client
to access that server. Which of the following describes the best solution?
A. Rebuild the application to point to an alternate update site
B. Use the Composite Applications Editor to specify your update site for feature requirements
C. Extract all of the features and site.xml in the provided site update database and import the features
back into your update site
D. Delete the features from the provided site update database and import your features into the provided
database and point users to the remote HTTP server
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of
the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer: D

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NO.11 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must be
used only for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.12 The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the following
groups?
A. SYSADM
B. MANAGERS
C. DB2ADMIN
D. ADMINISTRATORS
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have elected to create a marker so clients can update their reference to a database called
MARKETING.NSF. You did not select a designated destination server. Which of the following is the result
of this action?
A. The client will remove the bookmark reference for the database
B. The client will search all servers in the domain for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark
C. The client will search all known cluster servers only for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark
D. The client will prompt the user to specify servers to search for a replica of the database and modify the
bookmark
Answer: A

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NO.14 Troy, the Domino administrator, needs to update the Lotus Notes Standard 8.x users with a Lotus Notes
maintenance release and a new shelf application. Which of the following is needed to perform this
update?
A. Smart Update
B. Siteupdate.nsf
C. Site Upgrade and Lotus Links
D. Smart Upgrade and Siteupdate.nsf
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?
A. Cleanup Script
B. Fault Recovery
C. maximum Fault Limits
D. Server Shutdown Timeout
Answer: B

Lotus answers real questions   190-802   190-802   190-802   190-802

NO.16 Each time David restarts the agent manager, certain agents that should run only once are running
unscheduled. Which of the following steps may he perform to alleviate the issue while still allowing the
agents to run as required?
A. Set the agents to run on server restart only
B. Remove the server name from the agent security tab
C. Set the agent manager not to start by removing it from the notes.ini server tasks line
D. Make copies of the necessary agents into a new database and move that database out of the data
directory until necessary
Answer: A

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NO.17 Martin has been directed to configure Sametime integration for Domino Web Access (DWA) on the
Domino 8 server. Which of the following is required in the server document for Sametime to function
correctly inside of DWA?
A. Java Servlet Manager
B. HTTP Servlet Manager
C. Domino Servlet Manager
D. Sametime Servlet Manager
Answer: C

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NO.18 You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from searching
databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the following locations is this
configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

Lotus   190-802   190-802 answers real questions   190-802 exam prep

NO.19 Which of the following is required on the WebSphere server for Lotus Notes users who use composite
applications that contain portlet elements?
A. A Lotus Notes 8 client
B. Server client installer
C. The user's Lotus Notes id file
D. A Domino 8 server installation
Answer: B

Lotus test   190-802   190-802   190-802

NO.20 Denny, a Notes user, maintains a large amount of mail in his inbox. The administrator has designated
that Inbox Cleanup will occur on mail older than 14 days. Which of the following is the result of the
administrator enabling this feature?
A. All mail older than 14 days will be removed from the inbox
B. All mail older than 14 days will be deleted from the mailfile
C. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to a new folder titled "expired"
D. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to the trash folder and must be restored by the user
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 190-520
Exam Name: Lotus (Maintaining Domino R5 Servers and Users)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
165 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Where can Otto check to make sure mail is routing when the number in the "Route at once if
field" of the connection document is reached?
A. Count messages in MAIL.BOX.
B. Count messages in MAIL.NSF.
C. Check TRESHOLD.LOG.
D. Check MAILLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.2 Magnus has deleted a resource reservation document and created a new one with updated
information to replace it.
What needs to take place to make the new resource available?
A. Replicate the Domino Directory.
B. Request the resource to be used when scheduling a meeting.
C. Administration Process updates the resource document in the Directory.
D. The resource is available when the resource document is saved.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Ove has added an alternate name for Marcus.
Which method was NOT a procedure that Marcus could have used to add an alternate name?
A. Recertify User ID.
B. Register a new user.
C. Run the "Alternate name" agent.
D. Edit the person document, add the alternate name, then recertify the User ID.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Bubba has several users with maul files over 2 GB. He has been requested to reduce the
size of mail files in the interest of saving disk space. By default, the router will continue to
deliver mail to a user even though his mail file is over its size quota.
How can Bubba prevent this?
A. Set "Obey database quotas during message delivery" to Enabled in a Configuration document.
B. From the Server console enter, "Tell Router Obey Quota".
C. In the database Quota setting, select "Router-Obey database Quota".
Answer: A

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NO.5 Because of intermittent network problems, Edna wants administrators to be able to track
mail messages on all the servers in the domain. The administrators are listed in the
ADMIN group.
Which one of the following does Edna need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add the ADMIN group to the "Allowed to track message" field in each server's Configuration
document.
B. Add the ADMIN group only to the "Allowed to track message" field in the Administration
server's Configuration document by default.
C. Nothing. The ADMIN group is added to the "Allowed to track message" field in the
Administration Server's Configuration document by default.
D. Nothing. The ADMIN group is allowed to track message when the "Allowed to track
message" field in each server's Configuration document is left blank.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Using a Web client, Eva cannot access the Catalog database. Domino indicates that she is
not authorized to access the database.
Which one of the following caused this error?
A. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous is not listed in the ACL.
B. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous ACL access is set to No Access.
C. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Reader.
D. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Author.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Vladimirhas Designer access in the Sales Discussion database. He has made several
changes and is ready to make them available to all replicas of the database. After a full
replication cycle he noticed that none of the changes have appeared.
What could cause this problem?
A. He needed manager access to make changes to replicas.
B. The design of the database is hidden.
C. Design changes are only made at 1 AM by the server Design task.
D. The originating server access was set too low on the other servers.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Rodger is responsible for the Mail server at Certkiller . Routing is taking an unusually long
time and Rodger suspects that high traffic is slowing the process.
How can he increase the number of messages routing at one time?
A. Limit the number of users to connect concurrently.
B. Implement multiple MAIL.BOX databases to expedite mail routing on his server.
C. Limit the number of mail messages a user can send at one time.
D. Delete user mail files from his server to keep traffic down.
Answer: B

Lotus   190-520   190-520   190-520

NO.9 Documentation suggests that Saruman check for a missing or incorrect Domain setting in
the NOTES.INI file. At server startup, the Router reads this setting and sends the message
"Mail Router started for the domain x" to the console and to the log file.
What command can Saruman type at the console to verify the NOTES.INI domain setting?
A. Show Configuration Domain
B. Set Configuration Domain
C. Test Configuration Domain
D. Verify Configuration Domain
Answer: A

Lotus   190-520   190-520

NO.10 Will selected "Pull only" in the "Router type" field on the connection document where
Domino32 server initiates a connection to Domino10 server.
When the connection is made, what routing activity will take place?
A. Domino32 will pull mail from Domino10.
B. Domino32 will push mail to Domino10.
C. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to pull mail from Domino32.
D. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to push mail to Domino32.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Johannes is Manager of the Problem Tracking database and is troubleshooting an agent.
The agent is written in LotusScript. He developed the database on Server B and replicated
it to Server A.
Why would the agent run fine on server A but not on Server B?
A. Server B is not in the same Notes Named Network.
B. Server B is a test server only.
C. Server B does not allow him to run agents.
D. Server B is a Hub server.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Amanda is responsible for all web access to Certkiller . Several users have reported that
they are getting the "Database browsing not allowed" error when trying to access
databases on one particular server.
What does Amanda need to do to fix this problem?
A. Go to all databases involved and deselect the "hide from web users" check box in database
properties.
B. Restart the server because databases haven't been refreshed recently.
C. Give the users manager access to the databases.
D. Make certain the option "Allow HTTP clients to browse databases" is enabled in the server
document for that server.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Pia was listed as Editor in the ACL of EMPLOYEE.NSF. She created new documents and
existing documents, but now Pia can't edit any documents but her own.
What has changed?
A. An Authors field was added to the documents.
B. Her ACL level was changed to Author.
C. A Readers field was added to the documents.
D. The $Revisions field wad deleted from the documents.
Answer: B

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NO.14 To improve performance, Domino stores in memory information about HTTP commands,
databases, users and page formulas.
What is this feature called?
A. HTTP cache
B. Web cache
C. Domino Analyzer
D. Command cache
Answer: D

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NO.15 Max uses the console command "tell http restart".
Which command sequence is this equivalent to?
A. "Load http", then "tell http quit"
B. "Tell http quit", then "load http"
C. "Tell http quit", then "http"
D. "Quit", then "tell http load"
Answer: B

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NO.16 In order for Christine to access the server console from a Unix command line, which command
must Christine use?
A. Console
B. Cconsole
C. Rconsole
D. AdminConsole
Answer: B

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NO.17 When displaying Topology Mapping for servers, there are lines that indicate types of
connections.
Which is not a valid connection type?
A. In-Use connection
B. Mail connection
C. Replication Connection
D. Mail and Replication Connection
Answer: A

Lotus   190-520   190-520   190-520

NO.18 At G¨¹ntersTech, the DomAdmin group is listed as Manager of all dat bases. All other
employees have Author access. A user changed another person's document because he had been
incorrectly given Editor access.
How can Jorgen, one of the administrators, see who changed the ACL?
A. Look in the Notes Log under the Database folder.
B. Check the ACL log on the server.
C. Look at the ACL log history in the ACL.
D. Changes are not logged for future review.
Answer: C

Lotus   190-520   190-520   190-520 exam

NO.19 Eric created a shared agent to run hourly on newly created documents. He gave the server
Manager access to the database. However, the agent is still running.
Which one of the following describes how to fix the problem?
A. Run the agent using a User ID and not a Server ID.
B. List the server in the Server Tasks section of the Server document.
C. List the server in the Agent Manager section of the Server document.
D. List the server in the Agent Restriction section of the Server document.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Jennifer sees the "Unable to copy database" message in the Miscellaneous Events view if the log
indicating that a database is corrupted.
She is running transaction logging for the database.
What should she do?
A. Run the Fixup task with the -J option.
B. Run Updall
C. Reboot the server machine.
D. Make a new replica of the corrupted database with a different name, erase the old copy and
give the new copy it's name.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Juniper (IDP, Associate(JNCIA-IDP))
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Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You update your attack object database on Security Manager. What must you do before the new attack
objects become active on the IDP sensors?
A. You install the updated security policy on the IDP sensor.
B. No changes are required.
C. You must restart the IDP sensor.
D. You must restart the IDP processes on the IDP sensors.
Answer: A

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NO.2 After you enable alerts for new hosts that are detected by the Enterprise Security Profiler, where do you
look in Security Manager to see those alerts?
A. Security Monitor > Profiler > Application Profiler tab
B. Security Monitor > Profiler > Violation Viewer tab
C. Security Monitor > Profiler > Network Profiler tab
D. Log Viewer > Profiler Log
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which rule base would detect netcat?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement about the Enterprise Security Profiler (ESP) is true?
A. The ESP must be configured and started using the IDP sensor CLI before it is used.
B. The administrator must manually initiate Security Manager to sensor polling to retrieve ESP data.
C. The ESP must be configured and started on each IDP sensor manually, using the Security Manager
GUI.
D. The ESP is started by default in IDP version 4.0 or newer.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two will change the management IP of an IDP sensor? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the existing IDP sensor object in Security Manager GUI and change the IP address.
B. Delete the IDP sensor object from Security Manager and re-add the sensor with the new IP address.
C. Useifconfig to change the management IP address.
D. Use the ACM to change the management IP address.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which three fields in a packet must match an IDP rule before that packet is examined for an attack?
(Choose three.)
A. terminate match
B. service
C. destination address
D. source address
E. attack object
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further.
B. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be
processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
C. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further.
D. Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object
will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the attack object database update process?
A. Each sensor updates its own attack object database automatically; however they must be able to
access the Juniper site on TCP port 443.
B. The attack object database update must be manually performed by the administrator, and the
administrator must manually install it on each sensor.
C. The attack object database update can be initiated manually or automatically.
D. The attack object database update can be automatically scheduled to occur using the Security
Manager GUI.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is "a deviation from a protocol's expected behavior or packet format"?
A. context
B. compound attack object
C. attack signature
D. protocol anomaly
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which type of cable do you use for a console connection to an IDP sensor?
A. CAT 5 cable
B. Juniper proprietary cable
C. straight-through serial cable
D. null-modem cable
Answer: D

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NO.11 When connecting to a sensor using SSH, which account do you use to login?
A. admin
B. super
C. netscreen
D. root
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which OSI layer(s) of a packet does the IDP sensor examine?
A. layers 2-7
B. layers 2-4
C. layer 7 only
D. layers 4-7
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement is true about packet capture in the IDP sensor?
A. The Log Viewer has no indication of whether a log message has associated packet captures.
B. You can only log packets after an attack packet.
C. You can configure a particular number of packets to capture before and after an attack.
D. Packet capture records all packets flowing through the sensor.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A newly re-imaged sensor is running IDP 4.0 code. You want to assign IP address
10.1.1.1 to the sensor. Which method do you use to do this?
A. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as root, and answer theEasyConfig
B. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as root, and run ipconfig.
C. Connect to the sensor's console port, login as admin, and answer theEasyConfig
D. Use SSH to connect to the sensor at IP 192.168.1.1.Login as admin, and run ipconfig.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is one use of an IP action?
A. It blocks subsequent connections from specific IP addresses.
B. It modifies the IP header to redirect the attack.
C. It modifies the IP header to prevent the attack.
D. It permits or denies the traffic, based on the IP header.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which TCP port is used for communication between Security Manager and an IDP sensor?
A. 7801
B. 7800
C. 7803
D. 443
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which command on the IDP sensor CLI can be used to display the sensor statistics, which policy is
installed, and mode of sensor deployment?
A. sctop "s" option
B. sensor statistics can only be displayed from Security Manager GUI
C. scio list s0 sensor stat
D. scio sensor stat
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which rule base would detect the use of nmap on a network?
A. SYN protector
B. traffic anomalies
C. backdoor
D. exempt
Answer: B

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NO.19 On a sensor, which command will indicate if log messages are being sent to Security Manager.?
A. scio vr list
B. serviceidp status
C. scio agentstats display
D. scio getsystem
Answer: C

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NO.20 Exhibit:
You work as an administrator at Certkiller .com. Study the exhibit carefully. In the exhibit, which SYN
protector mode is the IDP using?
A. passive
B. handshake
C. relay
D. protective
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-570
Exam Name: Juniper (JN0-570 JNCIS-SSL EXAM)
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NO.1 Which two statements about OCSP are true? (Choose two.)
A. The IVE device is an OCSP client.
B. OCSP requires the configuration of a CDP server.
C. OCSP requires the use of SSL to secure certificate validation.
D. OCSP provides real-time certificate verification.
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which three variables can be used for a username in a custom expression? (Choose three.)
A. Username
B. Username1
C. Username2
D. Username[1]
E. Username[2]
Answer: ADE

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NO.3 Your company is rolling out Secure Meeting to assist the helpdesk in troubleshooting desktop issues.
Which type of meeting should you enable on the SSL VPN?
A. Scheduled meeting
B. Technical meeting
C. Support meeting
D. Instant meeting
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are correct when configuring delegated administrator access? (Choose three.)
A. Modify an existing admin URL.
B. Create a new user role.
C. Modify role mapping rules.
D. Specify role restrictions.
E. Select "delegated access" at the role level.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Which three configuration data items can you export with the XML Export function? (Choose three.)
A. User role mapping rules
B. Policy tracing sessions
C. Local users accounts
D. Delegated administrator roles
E. IDP sensors
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 You have just finished creating an IVS on your device. You can log in to your IVS but you cannot
access any backend resources. What should you troubleshoot first?
A. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct virtual IP.
B. Verify that you have allocated enough users for your IVS.
C. Verify that you have associated your IVS to the correct VLAN.
D. Verify that you are not blocked because of an untrusted certificate on the IVS.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Single Sign-On (SSO) policy relies on the IVE domain name?
A. SAML
B. Headers/Cookies
C. Form POST
D. Basic Auth/NTLM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement about CRLs is true?
A. CRLs are distributed automatically by the CA.
B. CDP can be used to automatically validate a CRL.
C. The base CRL contains only a subset of the certificates issued by a given CA.
D. CRLs contain the serial number, revocation date, and reason code for withdrawn certificates.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two are valid options for using CRLs to validate a user's certificate? (Choose two.)
A. Use LDAP to access the CDP.
B. Use the CDP specified in the CA certificate.
C. Use the CDP specified in the user certificate.
D. Use OCSP to access the CDP.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which three proxy scenarios are supported by Network Connect when split tunneling is enabled?
(Choose three.)
A. Explicit proxy to get to the IVE device
B. Support for a Winsock proxy client
C. Explicit proxy to get to internal applications
D. PAC file to get to internal applications
E. Automatic setting detection is configured in the client's browser
Answer: ACD

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
A user browses to https://partners.acmegizmo.com.
Referring to the exhibit, which authentication realm will be available to the user?
A. Users
B. LDAP Realm
C. ALL
D. Users and LDAP Realm
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement accurately describes resource profiles?
A. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource profiles are where ACLs are set up for resources.
C. Resource profiles are a collection of resources and their descriptions.
D. Resource profiles are where the resources, roles, and ACLs are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two are valid regarding the deployment of an active/active cluster? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to keep configurations synchronized.
B. An external load balancing system is required.
C. It can be used to scale the total number of licensed users.
D. A virtual IP address must be configured on only one device.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 When conducting meetings with Secure Meeting, your users frequently complain about jitter in the video
presentation. How might you attempt to improve performance?
A. Ensure that image compression is enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration page.
B. Limit the presentation video size to 800x600 resolution on the IVE device's Secure Meeting
configuration page.
C. Enable the Secure Meeting acceleration feature with the optional license upgrade.
D. Ensure that 32-bit presentations mode is not enabled on the IVE device's Secure Meeting configuration
page.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which ActiveX parameter rewrite option does the IVE support?
A. Rewrite hostname and port
B. Rewrite ClassID
C. Rewrite cookies and headers
D. Rewrite URL
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which custom expression would allow users to login only during business hours (8:00AM to 5:00PM,
Monday through Friday)?
A. (loginTime.day = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (8:00AM - 5:00PM))
B. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (8:00AM - 5:00PM))
C. (loginTime.dayofWeek = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime = (08:00 - 17:00))
D. (loginTime.Weekday = (Mon - Fri) AND loginTime in (08:00 - 17:00))
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should you do when you need to create a meeting on demand to troubleshoot a client issue.?
A. Schedule an on demand meeting that begins in 10 minutes.
B. Schedule an instant meeting through Secure Meeting.
C. Start up a support meeting.
D. Start a secure meeting through the Microsoft Outlook plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three statements are true regarding split-tunneling modes? (Choose three.)
A. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with route change monitor" allows Network Connect to update the
routing table if a route change is detected.
B. Choosing "Disable Split Tunneling" forces all traffic through the Network Connect tunnel.
C. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling" will modify routes on the client so that any networks defined in the
split-tunneling policy are routed through Network Connect.
D. Choosing "Allow access to local subnet" will not modify the route table on the local client.
E. Choosing "Enable Split Tunneling with allowed access to local subnet" requires that local resources be
defined in the Network Connect access control list.
Answer: BCE

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NO.19 Which three logs are used within the SA solution? (Choose three.)
A. Event log
B. System log
C. Client-Side log
D. User Access log
E. Security log
Answer: ACD

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NO.20 What does Cache Cleaner remove by default?
A. All content downloaded through the IVE Content Intermediation Engine during the user's IVE session
B. The files in the user's Recycle Bin and the Recent Documents list at the end of the user session
C. All temporary files created during the user's IVE session
D. Any AutoComplete usernames or passwords used during the user's IVE session
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-331
Exam Name: Juniper (SEC,Specialist(JNCIS-SEC))
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131 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which two functions of JUNOS Software are handled by the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. OSPF
C. SNMP
D. SCREEN options
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit schedulers]
user@host# show
scheduler now {
monday all-day;
tuesday exclude;
wednesday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
thursday {
start-time 07:00:00 stop-time 18:00:00;
}
}
[edit security policies from-zone Private to-zone External]
user@host# show
policy allowTransit {
match {
source-address PrivateHosts;
destination-address ExtServers;
application ExtApps;
}
then {
permit {
tunnel {
ipsec-vpn myTunnel;
}
}
}
scheduler-name now;
Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, what are the actions of the security policy?
A. The policy will always permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel.
B. The policy will permit transit packets only on Monday, and use the IPsec VPN Mytunnel.
C. The policy will permit transit packets and use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday and
Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
D. The policy will always permit transit packets, but will only use the IPsec VPN myTunnel all day Monday
and Wednesday 7am to 6pm, and Thursday 7am to 6pm.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In JUNOS Software, which three packet elements can be inspected to determine if a session already
exists? (Choose three.)
A. IP protocol
B. IP time-to-live
C. source and destination IP address
D. source and destination MAC address
E. source and destination TCP/UDP port
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 Host A opens a Telnet connection to Host B. Host A then opens another Telnet connection to Host B.
These connections are the only communication between Host A and Host B. The security policy
configuration permits both connections.
How many flows exist between Host A and Host B?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Regarding attacks, which statement is correct?
A. Both DoS and propagation attacks exploit and take control of all unprotected network devices.
B. Propagation attacks focus on suspicious packet formation using the DoS SYN-ACK-ACK proxy flood.
C. DoS attacks are directed at the network protection devices, while propagation attacks are directed at
the servers.
D. DoS attacks are exploits in nature, while propagation attacks use trust relationships to take control of
the devices.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
[edit groups]
user@host# show
node0 {
system {
host-name NODE0;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.1/24;
}
}
}
}
}
node1 {
system {
host-name NODE1;
}
interfaces {
fxp0 {
unit 0 {
family inet {
address 1.1.1.2/24;
}
}
}
}
}
In the exhibit, what is the function of the configuration statements?
A. This section is where you define all chassis clustering configuration.
B. This configuration is required for members of a chassis cluster to talk to each other.
C. You can apply this configuration in the chassis cluster to make configuration easier.
D. This section is where unique node configuration is applied.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms does not forward traffic by default; a traditional router forwards
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms uses session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms performs route lookup for every packet; a traditional router
performs route lookup only for the first packet.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/2.0;
ge-0/0/3.102;
}
}
B. [edit security zones]
user@host# show
security-zone red {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/2.0;
}
}
security-zone blue {
interfaces {
ge-0/0/1.0;
ge-0/0/3.0;
}
}
C. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
}
D. [edit routing-instances]
user@host# show
red {
interface ge-0/0/3.0;
interface ge-0/0/3.102;
}
blue {
interface ge-0/0/0.0;
interface ge-0/0/2.0;
}
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Regarding zone types, which statement is true?
A. You cannot assign an interface to a functional zone.
B. You can specifiy a functional zone in a security policy.
C. Security zones must have a scheduler applied.
D. You can use a security zone for traffic destined for the device itself.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A traditional router is better suited than a firewall device for which function?
A. VPN establishment
B. packet-based forwarding
C. stateful packet processing
D. Network Address Translation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two statements describe the difference between JUNOS Software for security platforms and a
traditional router? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software for security platforms supports NAT and PAT; a traditional router does not support
NAT or PAT.
B. JUNOS Software for security platforms secures traffic by default; a traditional router does not secure
traffic by default.
C. JUNOS Software for security platforms allows for session-based forwarding; a traditional router uses
packet-based forwarding.
D. JUNOS Software for security platforms separates broadcast domains; a traditional router does not
separate broadcast domains.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Which three functions are provided by JUNOS Software for security platforms? (Choose three.)
A. VPN establishment
B. stateful ARP lookups
C. Dynamic ARP inspection
D. Network Address Translation
E. inspection of packets at higher levels (Layer 4 and above)
Answer: ADE

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NO.13 By default, which condition would cause a session to be removed from the session table?
A. Route entry for the session changed.
B. Security policy for the session changed.
C. The ARP table entry for the source IP address timed out.
D. No traffic matched the session during the timeout period.
Answer: D

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NO.14 For IKE phase 1 negotiations, when is aggressive mode typically used?
A. when one of the tunnel peers has a dynamic IP address
B. when one of the tunnel peers wants to force main mode to be used
C. when fragmentation of the IKE packet is required between the two peers
D. when one of the tunnel peers wants to specify a different phase 1 proposal
Answer: A

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NO.15 Users can define policy to control traffic flow between which two components? (Choose two.)
A. from a zone to the device itself
B. from a zone to the same zone
C. from a zone to a different zone
D. from one interface to another interface
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which two statements about JUNOS Software packet handling are correct? (Choose two.)
A. JUNOS Software applies service ALGs only for the first packet of a flow.
B. JUNOS Software uses fast-path processing only for the first packet of a flow.
C. JUNOS Software performs route and policy lookup only for the first packet of a flow.
D. JUNOS Software applies SCREEN options for both first and consecutive packets of a flow.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 What are two components of the JUNOS Software architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Linux kernel
B. routing protocol daemon
C. session-based forwarding module
D. separate routing and security planes
Answer: BC

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NO.18 What is the purpose of a zone in JUNOS Software?
A. A zone defines a group of security devices with a common management.
B. A zone defines the geographic region in which the security device is deployed.
C. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar security requirements.
D. A zone defines a group of network segments with similar class-of-service requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which two statements are true regarding proxy ARP? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy ARP is enabled by default.
B. Proxy ARP is not enabled by default.
C. JUNOS security devices can forward ARP requests to a remote device when proxy ARP is enabled.
D. JUNOS security devices can reply to ARP requests intended for a remote device when proxy ARP is
enabled.
Answer: BD

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NO.20 What is the default session timeout for UDP sessions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-355
Exam Name: Juniper (Junos Pulse Secure Access, Specialist (JNCIS-SA))
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115 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?
A.a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.protected file storage on a remote server
C.a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.a protected workspace on the client desktop
Answer:B

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NO.2 How are user role-mapping rules processed by the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service gateway?
A.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
not
allowed to sign in to the realm.
B.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for the best match. If no match is found, the user is
assigned to the default role.
C.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
not allowed to sign into the realm.
D.All rules are processed in a top-down fashion for all eligible matches. If no match is found, the
user is
assigned to the default role.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which two statements describe the Content Intermediation Engine (CIE)? (Choose two.)
A.The CIE is responsible for the redirect function.
B.The CIE is responsible for processing incoming requests and outgoing content.
C.The CIE rewrites Web content.
D.The CIE rewrites application content using Junos Pulse.
Answer:AC

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NO.4 Which Junos Pulse Secure Access Service component controls the user login URL mapping to
the
appropriate backend authentication service?
A.authentication server
B.authentication realm
C.resource policy
D.sign-in policy
Answer:D

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NO.5 What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?
A.group instant messaging services
B.Web-based meeting services
C.corporate file sharing services
D.conference call services
Answer:C

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Exam Code: JN0-696
Exam Name: Juniper (Security Support, Professional (JNCSP-SEC))
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36 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You notice that the secondary node of a chassis cluster has become disabled.
What caused this behavior?
A. The fxp0 interface on the secondary device failed.
B. The control link between the devices failed.
C. A reth on the secondary device failed.
D. An IPsec tunnel between the two devices failed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are having problems establishing an IPsec tunnel between two SRX Series devices.
What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. proposal mismatch
B. antivirus configuration
C. preshared key mismatch
D. TCP MSS clamping is disabled
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Your SRX Series device has the following configuration:
user@host> show security policies
...
Policy: my-policy, State: enabled, Index: 5, Sequence number: 1
Source addresses: any Destination addresses: any
Applications: snmp
Action: reject
From zone: trust, To zone: untrust
...
When traffic matches my-policy, you want the device to silently drop the traffic; however, you
notice that the device is replying with ICMP unreachable messages instead.
What is causing this behavior?
A. the snmp application
B. the reject action
C. the trust zone
D. the untrust zone
Answer: C

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NO.4 Two SRX Series devices are having problems establishing an IPsec VPN session. One of the
devices has a firewall filter applied to its gateway interface that rejects UDP traffic.
What would resolve the problem?
A. Disable the IKE Phase 1 part of the session establishment.
B. Disable the IKE Phase 2 part of the session establishment.
C. Change the configuration so that session establishment uses TCP .
D. Edit the firewall filter to allow UDP port 500.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You want to allow remote users using PCs running Windows 7 to access the network using an
IPsec VPN. You implement a route-based hub-and-spoke VPN; however, users report that they are
not able to access the network.
What is causing this problem?
A. The remote clients do not have proper licensing.
B. Hub-and-spoke VPNs cannot be route-based; they must be policy-based.
C. The remote clients' OS is not supported.
D. Hub-and-spoke VPNs do not support remote client access; a dynamic VPN must be implemented
instead.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Users at a branch office report that they cannot reach an internal Web server. The users
connect through a single SRX Series device to reach the Web server. A security policy has been
configured on the device that allows traffic to flow between interfaces in the Trust zone.
What is causing this problem?
A. The interface on the device that connects to the Web server is not in the Trust zone.
B. The IPsec VPN connection between the users and the Web server is down.
C. There is a host inbound traffic configuration problem.
D. There is an antispam configuration problem.
Answer: C

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