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Exam Code: HP2-K18
Exam Name: ASC - HP Enterprise Storage Solutions [2009]
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Exam Code: HP2-Z03
Exam Name: HP ProCurve Accredited Sales Consultant v9.11
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Exam Code: HP0-M18
Exam Name: HP LoadRunner Software
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NO.1 You are running a test and notice that during the ramp up, the response times are beginning to
drastically increase. How can you instruct LoadRunner to stop ramping up Vusers and hold the current
number?
A. press the STOP button on the Controller's main window
B. press the PAUSE button on the Interactive Schedule graph
C. select the option to wait for the current iteration to end before stopping
D. select the Vusers in the Ready state from the Vusers window and click the STOP button
Answer: B

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NO.2 While analyzing the Vuser log files from a scenario run, you see the following log file from one of the
Vusers.
Start auto log message stack - Iteration 1.
Starting action BookFlight.
BookFlight.c(5): Notify: Transaction WT_00_Home_Page started.
BookFlight.c(7): Error -27796: Failed to connect to server 27.0.0.1:1080 [10061]
End auto log message stack.
What was the Run-time setting, Logging option set to?
A. Standard Logging
B. Extended Logging
C. Always send a message
D. Send a message only when an error occurs
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where are the results stored during the run of a scenario?
A. Analysis
B. Controller
C. utility server
D. load generator
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to compare a measurement in a graph with other
measurements during a specific time range of a scenario and view similar trends?
A. Drill Down
B. Apply Filter
C. Merge Graphs
D. Auto Correlate
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where in the Run-time settings can you define to only send messages when an error occurs?
A. General: Log
B. General: Run Logic
C. General: Miscellaneous
D. General: Additional Attributes
Answer:A

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which type of graph does the image in the exhibit represent?
A. Merged graph
B. Drill Down graph
C. Cross Scenario graph
D. Auto Correlated graph
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you specify to iterate a script 10 times, which sections of the script are iterated?
A. group
B. action
C. vuser_init
D. vuser_end
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NO.8 Which Analysis graph details transaction response times as a function of load?
A. Transactions per Second
B. Average Transaction Response Time
C. Transaction Response Time Under Load
D. Transaction Response Time (distribution)
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Planning and Designing HP SMB Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-E14
Exam Name: HP Service Sales Professional
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Exam Code: HP5-K03D
Exam Name: Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions
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NO.1 Your customer has an existing HP 3PAR F400 array with two controller nodes and eight DC3
disk enclosures Each DC3 disk enclosure is fully populated with 300GB 15k disk drives.
The customer has purchased a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node system with five additional
drive enclosures to be installed in a second data center. This system is fully populated with 450GB
10k drives. Data will be migrated from the F400 to the 7400 by using Remote Copy Fibre Channel
(RCFC). The 7400 will then become the primary system, but data will continue to be replicated
between the systems. Additionally, the customer has ordered extra 8GB/S FC adapters for the new
7400.
What is the maximum number of configurable host ports on the new HP StoreServ 7400 array in the
customer environment?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: D

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5. Your customer has an existing HP 3PAR F400 array with two controller nodes and eight DC3
disk enclosures. Each DC3 disk enclosure is fully populated with 300GB 15k disk drives.
The customer has purchased a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node system with five additional
drive enclosures to be installed in a second data center. This system is fully populated with 450GB
10k drives Data will be migrated from the F400 to the 7400 by using Remote Copy Fibre Channel
(RCFC). The 7400 will then become the primary system, but data will continue to be replicated
between the systems. Additionally, the customer has ordered extra 8GB/s FC adapters for the new
7400.
During the installation you record these serial numbers for the new HP 3PAR StoreServ system:
HP serial number CZ32439658
3PAR serial number 1628580
Which SPID is assigned during the installation?
A. SP0001628580
B. SP32439658
C. 1628580
D. 00032439658
Answer: A

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03603825 /c036038
2 5.pdf(page 7, second bullet)
6. Which statements are true about the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000? (Select two.)
A. Within a column, there can be empty slots between drives.
B. Columns of drives must be of the same drive type and rotational speed for HDDs.
C. Drives must be added in identical pairs.
D. The LFF enclosure cannot be mixed with the SFF enclosure on the same node pair,
E. All columns have to contain the same number of drives.
Answer: B,C

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7. Your customer plans to build a two-tier architecture with one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400. Layer 1
should be the SSD Tier, and Layer 2 should be the Fast Class Tier. After the SmartStart configuration
is complete, the customer connects to the system through the InformOS Management Console.
Which default CPGs are created during the process of initializing the storage system?
A. SSD RAID 1 and 5: Fast Class 1 and 6 default CPGs
B. SSD RAID 1 and 5: Fast Class 1 and 5 default CPGs
C. SSD RAID 1,5,and 6; Fast Class 1 and 6 default CPGs
D. SSD RAID 1 and 5 FastClass 1,5 and 6 default CPGs
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has an existing c70fJ0 enclosure, with 6 blades and FlexFabric modules. You have
been asked to install 5 additional blades for a virtualization project. The customer requires shared
storage for a Hyper-V cluster.
Their existing storage infrastructure is 1Gb iSCSI.
What would be the most cost-effective method for adding a new 3PAR storage?
A. Directly attach the FC Host ports of the c7000.
B. Install SAN Switch Modules in the c7000.
C. Install two Brocade 8 / 8 SAN Switches
D. Upgrade the network switches to 10GB
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has three HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000 systems in different sites on their
metropolitan campus The FC-based SANs within the different sites consist of B-series 8 Gbps
switches with an active port-based zoning. Between the sites, there is a 10 Gbps Ethernet
connection.
Which remote copy configuration should you recommend?
A. N-to-1 Configuration
B. Synchronous Long Distance Configuration
C. Unidirectional 1-to-1 Configuration
D. 1-to-N Configuration

NO.4 What must be done prior to running HP 3PAR SmartStart?
A. The service laptop needs to be connected to the StoreServ system.
B. The Service Processor and StoreServ system must be connected to the same subnet
C. An installation service call must be placed with HP Central,
D. A zone must be created between the StoreServ system and the Service Processor.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K09
Exam Name: Supporting MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries
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Exam Code: HP0-S17
Exam Name: Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise
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Exam Code: HP2-E41
Exam Name: HP Visual Collaboration-System Administrator
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NO.1 What is the maximum cable length on an LVD SCSI bus?
A. 9.84 ft (3 m)
B. 19.68 ft (6 m)
C. 39.37 ft (12 m)
D. 82.02 ft (25 m)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which scheme reflects the slot numbering of an MSL2024 Tape Library?
A. vertical columns from top to bottom, starting at the rear
B. vertical columns from bottom to top, starting at the front
C. horizontal rows from rear to front, starting at the top row
D. horizontal rows from front to rear, starting at the bottom row
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are connecting an MSL2024 or MSL4048 library to a Fibre Channel SAN. Which statement is
correct?
A. One host only can have access to the tape devices.
B. Each tape device can be accessed by only one host.
C. All hosts can have shared access to the tape devices.
D. Only hosts with HP Data Protector installed can share tape devices.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of drives the MSL4048 can support? (Select two.)
A. 2 Ultrium 960 tape drives
B. 4 Ultrium 960 tape drives
C. 4 Ultrium 448 tape drives
D. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives
E. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives and 1 Ultrium 960 tape drive in mixed configuration
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What is the maximum native storage capacity of the MSL4048 Tape Library with an Ultrium 960 drive
and
all media slots loaded?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 19.2 TB
C. 24.0 TB
D. 36TB
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which featuresare used bythe LTO Ultrium tape family? (Select three.)
A. cartridge memory
B. global storage link
C. adaptive tape speed
D. adaptive compression
E. adaptive cleaning heads
F. media recognition system
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 Which tape drive format uses helical scan technology?
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. LTO-3
D. Travan
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which SCSI signaling is supported with the MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries? (Select two.)
A. SE (single ended)
B. SAS (serial attached SCSI)
C. LVI (low voltage incremental)
D. LVD (low voltage differential)
E. HVD (high voltage differential)
Answer: BD

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Exam Name: HP-UX 11 to 11i v3 Differences
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Exam Code: HP2-E23
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products
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Exam Code: HP2-B87
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals
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NO.1 What is the purpose of Proof and Hold?
A. to allow the user to verify output priorto printing additional copies
B. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer after entering a PIN number
C. to allow the job to be permanently stored in the printer for future printing
D. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. It is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic.?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. send once / RIP once
C. transmit once / RIP once
D. transmit once / RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is an advantage of the Transmit Once technology?
A. allows quicker copies at the printer without resending the print job
B. minimizes network traffic by sending data to the printer once
C. processes faster within the printer by enhancing the processor speed
D. increases network traffic by sending data to the printer for each copy wanted
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which features provide Job Retention to a printer driver in combination with the hard drive?
A. Stored Job, Private Job, Delete Job
B. Proof and Hold, Quick Copy, Stored Job, Personal Job
C. Quick Copy, Rip Once, Proof and Hold, Canceled Jobs
D. Quick Copy, Transmit Once, Proof and Hold, Zipped Compression
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is printing three copies of a five-page document using the Stored Job option feature of the
driver. How many pages will be printed?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 15
Answer: D

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NO.7 What happens when you send a print job to the printer's hard disk using the Job Retention feature
"Stored Job"?
A. It prints only one copy and stores the image on the hard disk.
B. It stacks the job for first-in-first-out printing.
C. It prints like any other job and stores the image on the hard disk.
D. It RIPs and stores the print job on the hard disk without printing the job.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL 5
B. PostScript
C. PCL 3
D. PCL 6
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z20
Exam Name: S-Series Networking Product Authorization
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Updated: 2014-04-29
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Exam Code: HP2-H20
Exam Name: Sales Essentials of HP Workstations
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Exam Code: HP2-K22
Exam Name: Selling HP StorageWorks P9000
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NO.1 Which statement best describes the skill referred to as active listening"?
A. It is a questioning strategy that encourages the customer to offer additional information.
B. It is an approach used to prompt the customer towards a fast decision.
C. It is a questioning approach that involves leading questions.
D. It is a questioning strategy that employs short questions and rapid answers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of questions are the best to ask at the beginning of a sales meeting?
A. Verification questions
B. Opinion questions
C. Needs Identification questions
D. Commitment questions
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the acronym SMART stand for in the Sales Meeting Planner document.?
A. Specific, Measurable, Accessible, Ready, Timebound
B. Strategic, Measurable, Accessible, Realistic, Timebound
C. Specific, Measurable, Agreed, Realistic, Timebound
D. SpecifiS, Measurable, Agreed, Referral, Targeted
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the four primary types of questions to ask your customers during sales meetings?
A. Verification, Needs Identification, Opinion, Commitment
B. Verification, Needs Identification, Open-ended, Competency
C. Verification, Needs Identification, Open-ended, Competency
D. Verification, Rhetorical, Opinion, Commitment
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two utilities or tools provide an improved P9500 user experience for storage administrators?
(Select two.)
A. Dual Disk Emulator
B. Data Integrity Check
C. Continental Clusters
D. Command Line Interpreter (CLI)
E. Enhanced Remote Web Console
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 What are two HP Converged Infrastructure Consulting Services? (Select two.)
A. Visioning Workshop
B. Proof of Concept
C. Open SAN Implementation Service
D. Architectural Transformation
E. Legacy Application Transformation
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What would be considered a mission-critical challenge for a customer?
A. deciding on whether to deploy Solid State Drives (SSDs)
B. identifying the refresh cycle for company laptops and desktops
C. covering the rising maintenance costs on print servers
D. improving Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with reduced funding
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two P9000 software solutions work in conjunction to automatically migrate data between faster,
more expensive disks and slower, less expensive disks? (Select two.)
A. CommandViewAE
B. Smart Tiers
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Continuous Access
E. Application Performance Extender (APEX)
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: HP2-N31
Exam Name: Selling HP BSM Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-037
Exam Name: HP LaserJet Foundations
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Exam Code: HP3-C28
Exam Name: Selling HP QuickPage and InCommand Solutions
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NO.1 Where can you find license SKU and pricing information for HP BSM Network Management?
A. Pricing Guides on HP Partner Central
B. www.hp.com/software
C. BSM datasheets
D. Sales Awareness Webinars
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which capabilities of the BSM Network Management solution help customers achieve their
goals? (Select two.)
A. real user monitoring
B. faster problem resolution, freeing up resources for other priority projects
C. cross-domain event tracking and management capability
D. consolidation of multiple tools to reduce cost
E. business process testing and reporting
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which key differentiator supports a capability of the BSM Application Performance
management solution?
A. provides a single pane of visibility for complex, virtualized. and cloud environments
B. provides a cross-domain view of the entire IT environment with Operations Manager (i), known
as the "Operations Bridge"
C. provides real time end-to-end transaction monitoring via industry leading, end-user monitoring
and diagnostic tools
D. supports Heads-up Display (HUD) for multi-monitoring technology
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which discovery question would you ask to an IT executive to uncover a potential Network
Management pain point?
A. What percentage of your IT budget goes toward managing the infrastructure versus innovation?
B. How often do you update application revisions across your network?
C. Do you have the ability to integrate fault, availability, performance, and configuration
management?
D. Have you experienced customer satisfaction issues for accessing your applications?
Answer: D

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NO.5 From a BSM perspective, which qualifying question would you ask the VP of Operations
regarding the consequences of having separate event monitoring tools?
A. Are you able to monitor native iPhone Mobile applications end-to-end?
B. How are you tracking financial expenses in a siloed infrastructure?
C. Do you know when an application or service will be ready for deployment into the production
environment?
D. Does duplication of error tracking efforts slow the time to resolve problems?
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Application Performance Management business challenges are faced by IT executives
and solved through HP's BSM solution? (Select two.)
A. monitoring security breaches more effectively
B. pre-empting problems before they cause an outage
C. guaranteeing that service desk tickets are prioritized
D. improving customer and business satisfaction
E. providing better asset management tracking
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 000-281
Exam Name: IBM (Foundations of IBM Cloud Computing Architecture V2)
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NO.1 If security is the primary concern, which type of cloud infrastructure is best suited for multi-client
environments?
A. hybrid cloud environment
B. private cloud environment
C. multi-tenancy architecture
D. multi-instance architecture
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has heard a lot about Amazon and their EC2 offering. Which comparable IBM offering
should be discussed with this customer.?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Workload Deployer
C. IBM SmartCloud Enterprise
D. IBM Service Delivery Manager
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company has a requirement for image management but also requires shared application server
clusters to ensure application resiliency. Which solution can meet both requirements?
A. IBM Virtual Machine Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. IBM WebSphere Virtual Enterprise
D. IBM WebSphere Application Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.4 The three common layers of cloud computing are Application, Platform, and Infrastructure. What are
the two optional layers?
A. Client and Server
B. Session and Server
C. Network and Server
D. Network and Session
Answer: A

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NO.5 What differentiates cloud computing from utility computing?
A. Cloud computing is public oriented while utility computing is more privately oriented.
B. Cloud computing is detail oriented while utility computing is more high level and general.
C. Cloud computing is about technical details while utility computing is about time to market.
D. Cloud computing is seen more technically oriented while utility computing is more accounting oriented
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are two requirements for creating a cloud computing environment? (Choose two.)
A. data center
B. virtualization
C. public network
D. private network
E. dedicated storage
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which feature of the IBM Cloud Computing Reference Architecture V2 allows for cloud computing
engineers to feel comfortable that their environment includes people management for security?
A. security policy and entitlement
B. security tools based on hardware flexibility
C. customizable security scripts for the cloud computing environment
D. strong encryption and passwords enabling security hardening of the whole environment
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which critical business process must be reviewed to automate cloud services?
A. approval process
B. monitoring process
C. charge back process
D. change management process
Answer: A

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NO.9 How can cloud computing environments save energy?
A. All hardware devices must have the ENERGY STAR global mark of energy efficiency.
B. All cloud environments must be installed in a data center certified by the local energy regulation
authorities.
C. There are no physical servers in a cloud environment so there are no capital expenditure costs to rack
and store physical servers in the data center.
D. Because they use virtualization techniques to separate the software from the characteristics of physical
servers, certain costly energy features such as multiple power supplies are dropped.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Aside from using the common Web transports, Web services also require which component?
A. load balancing servers
B. multiple browser support
C. provisioning tools to deploy Web images
D. a common language for the data exchanged
Answer: D

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NO.11 A large enterprise is experiencing considerable cost increases in supplying physical hardware to their
application development team primarily for testing. They are looking to virtualize most of their test lab
requirements but at this time they do not have any virtualization technology, middleware, or hardware
capable to support such a service. They would also like a system that includes provisioning request
management with multi-level approval capabilities. They also need a solution that can be up and running
as quickly as possible.
Which IBM cloud solution offering is best suited for this client scenario?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Service Delivery Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Service Automation Manager
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Information Technology Infrastructure Library ITIL v3 volume addresses the part of the life cycle
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problems and balance between service reliability and cost?
A. ITIL Service Design
B. ITIL Service Strategy
C. ITIL Service Operation
D. ITIL Service Transition
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a main difference Between cloud computing and clustering?
A. clustering includes fixed resources
B. cloud computing includes fixed resources
C. cloud computing always includes clustering
D. clustering always includes cloud computing
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer wants to deploy a private cloud that takes advantage of unused computer resources within
their data center. Which IBM solution should be discussed with this customer?
A. IBM CloudBurst
B. IBM Workload Deployer
C. IBM Service Delivery Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: C

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NO.15 Where are Web services published?
A. XML registry
B. UDDI registry
C. HTTP registry
D. WSDL registry
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-609
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Insurance Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam )
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NO.1 What do insurers need to develop to meet customers ¯ needs
A. Fewer branch offices
B. Less diverse product offerings
C. Configurable set of insurance products
D. More complicated product offerings
Answer: A

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B. Digital communications
C. Digital data processing
D. Digital data storage
Answer: D

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B. The customer
C. The trends for database technology
D. IBM standards
Answer: B

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A. A need to take on risk at an enterprise and an individual level
B. An understanding of risk at an enterprise and an individual level
C. A business case for reducing risk
D. More documentation
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one of the innovations for channels that is new on the horizon?
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B. Automated billing
C. Automated data processing
D. Automated payments
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
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NO.1 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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NO.3 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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NO.5 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
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NO.1 A colleague tells you that it is possible to pass results directly from one model in Algo Financial
Modeler to another. Which file type would you reference to do this?
A. wva
B. wvu
C. wvr
D. wvz
Answer: C

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NO.2 After setting a model to run, at which three points of this process would a runtime error likely
occur? (Choose three.)
A. When the data is being processed from the source.
B. When the code is being generated.
C. When the records are being processed.
D. When the code is being linked.
E. When the results are being written.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 Other than for a product, what would be another purpose for using the BB Matrix
spreadsheet?
A. A process
B. An ESG file
C. An external assumption file
D. A model
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two principles upon which the Standard Code is based? (Choose two.)
A. The code focuses on calculation efficiency over clarity.
B. The code does not require any checking to ensure that it gives the correct results.
C. Overtime, additional functionality will be included, building a growing library of content.
D. The code is not designed to be used as a black box, but always to be modified to suit specific
circumstances.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 A colleague asks you to customize an Excel worksheet to read in values from an Algo Einancial
Modeler workspace. In each cell you need to return a value from output produced by AFM.
Which function would you use?
A. AFMWorkspaceInfo
B. AEMModelInfo
C. AEMOutput
D. AEMVariableInfo
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the top (yellow) layer of a model called?
A. Reserving Layer
B. Data Layer
C. Assets Layer
D. Realistic Layer
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the role of modules in AEM?
A. Modules are components used to specify all data variables that are being passed in from an
external source.
B. Modules are sets of variables and events for carrying out calculations in Algo Financial
Modeler.
C. Modules provide a diagrammatic view of a company structure that can be visualized within Algo
Financial modeler.
D. Modules containing all the components needed to complete a set of calculations in Algo
Financial Modeler are combined.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a model, to what would you attach an assumption set?
A. A data view
B. A module
C. A layer
D. A projection process
Answer: C

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NO.1 An intelligence analyst has just created a new custom attribute. However, when the analyst
inputs the data, only the Attribute Symbol is displayed on the chart and not the data entered. Which
of the following actions would allow the data to be displayed?
A. Change the attribute type to "Number".
B. Select "Show All" under the View tool bar.
C. Check the "Value" box under the attribute class properties.
D. Check the "Show on Chart" box under the attribute class properties.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a built-in dissemination tool?
A. Export to PDF
B. Save as spreadsheet
C. Send (as email attachment)
D. Save complete chart as picture
Answer: B

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NO.3 An analyst is creating a chart to show the order in which telephone calls took place. The
analyst adds the date and time of the call to the link, but cannot make the link controlling. Why is
that option NOT available?
A. Links can never be made controlling.
B. The duration of the call is also required.
C. Links can only be made controlling between Theme Lines.
D. Links can only be made controlling between Event Frames.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A researcher wants to move a Legend to another area on a chart. How can the Legend be
moved to the new area?
A. Right-click and drag.
B. Hold the Ctrl key and drag.
C. Change the Legend Properties to "Free".
D. Click the Edit button within Legend Items.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An intelligence analyst has been given an association chart with telephones and telephone call
links. The analyst would like to see the calls placed in time and date order, so the analyst decides to
change the chart into a timeline. How can the analyst change the telephone entities on the chart?
A. Change the Entity Type to Theme Line
B. Change the Entity Type to Event Frame
C. Change the Entity Representation to Theme Line
D. Change the Entity Representation to Event Frame
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following graphic types CANNOT be used to add a photo to an entity?
A. Portable Bitmap Format (.pbm)
B. Portable Network Graphics (.png)
C. File Interchange Format (.jpg, .jpeg)
D. Device Independent Bitmaps (.bmp, .dib)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Frames can be used to draw attention to key entities. Which of the following is NOT a reason
to use frames in a chart?
A. To distinguish groups of entities.
B. To map entities to Google Earth.
C. To indicate entities with shared attributes as a result of applying Conditional Formatting.
D. To change the appearance of entities selected using analysis tools such as filtering or Social
Network Analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An intelligence analyst is working on a case and needs to present a chart with a set of phone
calls between two suspects. Which of the following would allow the analyst to automatically align
the links to the Time Bar, in the correct chronological sequence?
A. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
B. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
C. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
D. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Architectural Design of SOA Solutions)
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NO.1 A company wants to integrate a number of existing best-of-breed applications by
implementing service
facades and an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB). The initial scenario involves the transfer of
order
information between a number of these backend services depending on business rules.
An SOA Designer is asked to capture the functional requirements.
What is the most appropriate starting point.?
A. Analysis of the information requirements of the existing applications
B. Investigation into appropriate industry standards for transferring data
C. Creation of use cases to understand what the services may be and how they interact
D. Define the component model associated with the existing applications and specify the
service
interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the next step while architecting an SOA solution after documenting the
business processes?
A. Determine the operations required to realize each process.
B. Select a business steward for each process and instruct the steward to identify re-usable
services.
C. Identify the services needed to realize each business process and group them into logical
components.
D. Identify core and non-core business components.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The SOA reference architecture identifies core services including Interaction, Process,
Information,
Partner, Access, and Infrastructure.
What is one valid reason for excluding one or more of these services in an SOA?
A. The application is predominantly middleware in nature, eliminating the need for
presentation services.
B. The consumer and the provider belong to different companies.
C. The business sponsor has set budget constraints on solution architecture and the
architectural
components to be included have to be prioritized.
D. The customer's internal politics make the specification too difficult.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A midsize city is experiencing rapid growth that requires extensive changes in city
land use regulations.
Under this pressure, many land use disputes are getting caught in endless inter-departmental
exchanges
to complete data collection using a variety of completion criteria. This is angering both
citizens and land
developers.
Which approach to SOA is likely to have the greatest impact?
A. Apply governance policies and procedures to control inter-departmental exchanges.
B. Align the departments with a common end-to-end process with shared business services.
C. Align the departments with a common data model and data access services to avoid
confusion and
duplication.
D. Create citizens portals to provide a mechanism for citizens to more easily monitor and
manage their
role in the process.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A large airline has decided to use SOA as a means to reduce costs through the use of
an Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) based infrastructure. The IT strategy group has purchased sophisticated
messaging
middleware and prototyped some services related to accessing passenger information. The
airline needs
to decide what to do next.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Move the prototype to production to assess the impact on the enterprise architecture.
B. Identify a governance method to define policies and procedures for sharing the ESB
infrastructure.
C. Align an SOA project with a business initiative and select high-value services through
process analysis.
D. Add a process server to the infrastructure to provide a means to use the passenger
information
services.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company has an existing message-based middleware solution that allows
exchanging business
information among several applications using a topic-based publish-subscribe integration
pattern. As part
of its SOA strategy, the company is now embarking on service-enabling the applications and
wants to
employ the publish-subscribe pattern using Web services technology.
Which Web services specification best addresses this need?
A. WS-Federation
B. WS-Addressing
C. WS-Notification
D. WS-MetaDataExchange
Answer: C

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NO.7 A government agency wants to ensure the selected patterns and code standards set
down by their SOA
governance body are adhered to.
Which type of tool will support this?
A. Code generation
B. Parsing
C. UML modeling
D. Data modeling
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Fortune 100 company is migrating its Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
architecture to SOA.
The intent is to begin exposing its capabilities to business partners. The CIO is thinking about
building a
high speed, custom messaging solution so there is capacity for future growth.
What should the SOA Designer say about the long-term implications of that direction?
A. A custom messaging solution could provide performance advantages if development
priority is
allocated to provide standards-based connectors and adapters for business partners to
connect.
B. XML messages can be transformed at wire speed using Enterprise Service Bus (ESB)
appliances like
WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliance, so it is not necessary to be concerned with that part
of the
system's performance.
C. Total cost of ownership will increase with custom middleware. Open standards-based
commercial
messaging products are more interoperable, extensible, scalable, replaceable, and reliable
than
custom-built systems.
D. It will take a serious commitment to detailed technical support to make this happen. It is
always a
tradeoff between standards-based compliance and performance. The implementation of the
custom
messaging will need to provide serious performance advantages to business partners.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services
Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D

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NO.10 A team is evaluating the maturity of a customer's solution architecture relative to the
IBM SOA
Foundation. It is discovered that the customer has invested heavily in an internally-developed
Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) and that their ESB has functionality expected to be found in other SOA
Foundation
services, especially Process Services, Business Services, and Information Services.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Continue development of the ESB because the architecture is generally compliant with the
SOA
Foundation.
B. Stop development of the ESB because the architecture violates the principle of loose
coupling among
services.
C. Continue using the ESB but begin a transition to a vendor-supported, standards-compliant
ESB.
D. Modify development priorities to shift Process Services functionality to other parts of the
Solution
Architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A retail catalog companys printing and mailing expenses are growing much more
rapidly than revenue.
Each time they update their database, they ship more catalogs and customers call in with
more
corrections.
Which evaluation and recommendation should the SOA Designer make?
A. Data quality is low. Master data management should be installed to cleanse and maintain
data quality
both from data sources and updates from the call center.
B. Third party mail lists are inconsistent. Use process modeling to identify when multiple
records are
created and how multiple catalogs get printed. Then use process simulation to optimize new
processes.
C. Processes do not incorporate data cleansing. Create an information service that retrieves
similar
records and displays them in a portlet, so operators can see multiple records and work with
the customer
to eliminate them.
D. Data entry is a very common source of error and customers are often inconsistent as well.
Operator
generated updates should be re-implemented to the indirect exposure solution pattern to
separate data
entry from record update permitting a data cleansing step in the update processes.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The IBM SOA Foundation includes services that support business innovation and
optimization.
What should be found in an SOA solution compliant with the SOA Foundation?
A. Automatic recognition of marketplace trends and dynamic reconfiguration of services in
support
B. Business process simulation to predict the effect that process changes might have on the
business
C. Alerts generated whenever business efficiency drops below a predefined threshold
D. An SOA dashboard for executives showing new business opportunities categorized by
Return on
Investment (ROI)
Answer: B

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NO.13 An engineering services company is being asked by its customers to provide solutions
that cross Line
of Business (LOB) areas. Each LOB is independent and is measured on its own profitability.
The Chief
Operating Officer plans to make some organizational changes.
How could SOA enable this business transformation?
A. Provide an abstraction layer for each LOB application that will allow flexible composition of
services
tailored to each LOB business model. Create an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) that supports
integration of
systems across the LOBs for reuse.
B. Provide shared business services by migrating to a commercial Enterprise Resource
Planning (ERP)
system that can be service-enabled for access through an enterprise portal or from existing
individual
LOB applications.
C. Implement information as a service to consolidate data models and sharing across LOBs.
Support
governance of the service portfolio at an enterprise level.
D. Create an architecture board for each LOB to introduce SOA processes and drive service
identification,
goal modeling and business process re-engineering in support of mapping services to
business
capabilities.
Answer: C

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NO.14 How can a designer most effectively integrate components developed in various
technologies at
different companies into a composite application within an SOA?
A. Through careful coordination to ensure compatible interfaces
B. Through the use of industry standards such as SOAP over HTTPS
C. By placing the components in a service repository which will mediate the differences in
their interfaces
D. By providing code mediation and transformation functions through a business process
modeling effort
Answer: B

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NO.15 A mortgage loan provider currently has legacy applications utilized by a network of
branches and
franchised agents. They want to expand by adding a new channel to allow independent
mortgage brokers
to submit mortgage loan applications. They realize they must provide a differentiating offering
to the
independent mortgage brokers to attract participants and grow the new channel.
How can SOA benefit their requirement?
A. By building an SOA with a secure connectivity layer, they could quickly enable the
mortgage broker
channel to use their applications without any changes to the legacy system.
B. They could reduce the cost to develop new applications needed for each independent
broker by
reusing services as integration code that is written for each broker's system to expedite
development.
C. By service enabling the legacy applications and offering a Web-based portal for
independent brokers,
they can minimize the impact to existing channels, minimize changes to existing code, and
quickly create
an offering for the new channel.
D. By implementing security and governance as part of an SOA deployment, they can control
access to
the current system to determine which brokers are using the system and personalize their
marketing to
the high usage brokers.
Answer: C

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