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Exam Code: 270-132
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Exam Code: CAT-060
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NO.1 The EventDisp file defines event processing. Which statements about event processing are TRUE?
(Choose three)
A. An event can run a script.
B. An event can clear an alarm.
C. An event can participate in an Event Rule
D. An event can be logged to the DDM database.
E. Events can be correlated among different models.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 To add a column to an existing table, you need to:
A. Override the default XML file in the custom area using a new unique name.
B. Edit the default XML file in the default area and reference the new XML file in the custom area.
C. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and
reference the default XML file.
D. Create a new table XML file in the custom area with the same name as the default XML file and do not
reference the default XML file.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When you need to customize an existing subview:
A. Edit the default XML file in the default location.
B. Create a file in the custom directory structure with the same file name as the default XML file.
C. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file.
D. Create a file in the custom directory structure with a different file name from the default XML file but
reference the default XML file.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In a Distributed SpectroSERVER (D5S) environment, if you create an event condition rule, which file is
updated on the SpectroSERVERS?
A. PCause
B. AlertMap
C. EVformat
D. EventDisp
Answer: D

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NO.5 Use an Event Rate rule when you want:
A. No alarms for subsequent events of that event type.
B. Notification of a series of events occurring in a specific sequence.
C. Notification of the absence of an expected second event after an initial event.
D. Notification that there is a problem when a stream of the same events occurs at a set rate within a
specified time frame.
Answer: D

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NO.1 WS_API provides a web service interface to: (Choose two)
A. Existing business services on the grid.
B. The command-line interface (CLI)-based controller of the CA AppLogic grid.
C. One or multiple CA AppLogic grids, through a Representational State Transfer (REST)-based
service.
D. Large pools of virtualized infrastructure within each Virtual Data Center (VDC), which you can
programmatically control.
Answer: A

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NO.2 If you are using a Windows computer, how do you access a Virtual Dedicated Server (VDS) for
the
Linux operating system?
A. Remote Desktop
B. Login (graphic) option
C. Secure Shell (SSH) from the PuTTY tool
D. Cygwin bash using the following command: windows cmd.exe shell
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which appliance is a port switch that is used most often to forward/separate administrative
traffic?
A. PS8
B. HALB
C. WEB5
D. INSSL
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have completed the build for a new application and have had it running for two days. You
decide to
add monitoring capabilities to your application. After dragging a MON appliance to the grid, you use
balloon connectors to connect the mon interface of all your appliances to the mon interface of the
MON
appliance. Then you click the Monitor button. However, the monitoring function does not work.
Before you
make a second attempt at running the monitoring function, what do you need to do?
A. Configure a Monitoring Policy.
B. Save and restart your application.
C. Save your application and do no more.
D. Reconstruct the application, because you cannot add a MON appliance after an application has
already been running.
Answer: B

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NO.5 CA AppLogic virtualizes access to
Which types of peripheral devices? (Choose two)
A. Serial ports
B. Tape drives
C. Block storage devices
D. Network interface cards (NICs)
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Which file should you create to change certain default CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)
settings, such as baseline duration?
A. Web.xml
B. TESS -default. Properties
C. EM-baseline.properties
D. TESS-customer.properties
Answer: A

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NO.2 In CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM), the name of the file used for local authentication is:
A. users.xml
B. passwd.xml
C. security.xml
D. authenticate.xml
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after
an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile
file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports Metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD
files.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which graph displays the most information within a single view?
A. Dashboard
B. Box-Whisker
C. Defect Pareto
D. Standard Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.5 CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET
Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for
collecting this data?
A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A summary alert notification includes: (Choose three)
A. time stamps
B. transaction traces
C. a summary alert name
D. the current state of the summary alert
E. details of the user-defined time period for checking the current state of each underlying simple alert
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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NO.1 When you configure the Report Server, which guideline should you follow?
A. Always restart the environment after you configure reporting.
B. Set all systems involved in reportingto the same time zone and time.
C. To avoid port conflicts with JBoss, change the default port numbers in the CRConfig.xml file.
D. Configure the connection with the Provisioning Server before you configure the connection with
the Snapshot Database.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to import a large number of managed users to the CA Identity Minder User Store
simultaneously.Having explored the various options, the Bulk Loader method seems the best option.
However, which limitation do you need to be aware of before you begin?
A. It may use large amounts of memory.
B. It cannotbe mapped to a workflow process.
C. It does not support the execution of identity policies.
D. It bypasses audit and security mechanisms provided by the Task Server.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 When you export CA IdentityMinder environment settings, you generate a ZIP file containing
which files? (Choose three)
A. alias_environment.xml
B. alias_environment_roles.xml
C. alias_environment_users.xml
D. alias_environment_settings.xml
E. alias_environment_mappings.xml
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Which event context information object method returns the name of the person who
submitted the task that generated an event?
A. getOrgName()
B. getEventName()
C. getAdminName()
D. getPrimaryObjectName()
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Answer: A

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NO.7 During Exchange Agent configuration, which step do you perform?
A. Install an Exchange server remote agent on the Provisioning Server.
B. Configure the CAM and CAFT Service to be started by the system account.
C. Configure inbound mappings to map Exchange events to CA IdentityMinder tasks.
D. Configure CAFTHOST to recognize the C++ Connector Server (CCS) and the CA IdentityMinder
clients.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.1 A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following
test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.4 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

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NO.5 The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Answer: D

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NO.6 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

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NO.7 Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 0B0-109
Exam Name: WebLogic Server 9
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NO.1 Which of these session parameters would impact the performance of a Web Application?
i. InvalidationIntervalSecs
ii. TimeoutSecs
iii. CacheSize
A.i
B.ii, iii
C.i, ii, iii
D.i, ii
Answer: C

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NO.2 When a reliable web service method is invoked asynchronously, which of these scenarios will happen?
A.The results will be sent back in the same reliable sequence as the method invocation
B.The results will be sent back in another reliable sequence
C.The results will not be sent in a reliable sequence
D.None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of these <trans-attribute> tags forces the EJB to be executed within a transaction started either
by the client or container?
A.Supports
B.Required
C.RequiresNew
D.Mandatory
Answer: B

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NO.4 Entity bean activation involves
A.EJB Container providing a primary key identity to a pooled EJB
B.EJB Container moves an EJB from secondary storage to main memory
C.EJB Container creates a new EJB instance and adds to the active pool
D.None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.5 A container or application server can optimize performance by pooling EJBs that are considered to be
identical. Which or these parameters can be used to control the size of this EJB pool?
A.<max-beans-in-free-pool>
B.<max-beans-in-pool>
C.<beans-in-free-pool>
D.<max-beans-in-initial-pool>
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the JNDI name of the default queue used for configuring web service reliable messaging in
WebLogic server?
A.weblogic.wsee.DefaultQueue
B.weblogic.DefaultQueue
C.weblogic.wsee
D.wsee.DefaultQueue
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about JMX?
A.It defines an infrastructure to manage a driver from native programs
B.It decouples the managed device from the management tools
C.MBeans are the building blocks of JMX
D.All of the above
Answer: BC

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NO.8 A system exception is one that indicates that the business method of an EJB was prevented from
successfully executing because of some system-level error. Which of these statements is true about a
system exception?
A.It is a subclass of RemoteException or RuntimeException
B.It is propagated to clients as a RemoteException
C.It is caught and logged by the container
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.1 Part 2: "Test Analyst various"
Which of the following is a risk mitigation action?
A. High level of testing independence
B. Identify complex areas of the system
C. Analyse the frequency of use of the functionalities
D. Use risk templates to identify risks
Answer: A

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NO.2 As part of the new strategy a user interface specification has been created to help
development to gain familiarity with the requirements. What kind of review would be most helpful
in this situation? s
A. A walkthrough, because it would help them understand the interface better
B. An inspection, because it would result in a signed off user interface specification to work from
C. A technical review, because it will identify all the problems with the user interface specification
D. A management review, because it sets management criteria for the development
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification
phase?
A. A requirements review meeting
B. A business analyst eliciting requirements
C. Performing acceptance tests against requirement
D. A test report showing requirements coverage
Answer: A

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NO.4 Part 2: "Test Analyst various"
One limitation of pairwise testing is that it
A. is only suitable for testing boundaries
B. may not produce the most commonly used combinations
C. produces all combinations of tests
D. finds defects in clusters of functionality
Answer: B

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NO.5 Since the components need to be integrated in an overall software system, interoperability
testing is considered to be of importance. Which of the following techniques is most likely to be
used to support interoperability tests?
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Statement testing
C. Vulnerability Scan
D. Defect Taxonomies
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an important principle for using experienced-based test techniques?
A. Tester skill is a critical factor in assigning test execution tasks
B. Tester skills are less important than ensuring 100% test utilisation
C. Testers should always focus on defect-prevention activities
D. Testers should be evaluated based on the number of defects they find
Answer: A

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Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager
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NO.1 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses?
He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.
A. Dr. Juran
B. Dr. Deming
C. Dr. Taguchi
D. Dr. Feigenbaum
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?
. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group.
. Difficulty in arriving at consensus.
. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities.
. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. I,IIandIIIonly
D. I, II,IIIandIV
Answer: B

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NO.3 The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?
A. Increased cost-of-quality results.
B. Improved working methods and morale.
C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:
A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B. Provide feedback to the group.
C. Function as the group leader.
D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:
A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured
orjudged.
C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to
another'sperformance.
D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.
Answer: C

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NO.6 During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly
describes team activities?
. The team leader is usually directive.
. The team leader often delegates tasks.
. Team members prioritize and perform duties.
. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
A. IIandIIIonly
B. I,IIandIIIonly
C. IandIV only
D. II,IIIandIV only
Answer: C

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NO.7 An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:
A. Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B. Prevention costs increase.
C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D. Management objectives are met.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?
A. Writing operating procedures.
B. Training.
C. Data acquisition and analysis.
D. Calibrating test equipment.
Answer: D

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NO.1 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.3 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.4 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.7 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
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NO.1 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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NO.7 As a requirement for accessing Service B, Service A needs to encrypt its request message. Service B
decrypts the message, makes some changes, encrypts the message, and then forwards it to Service C.
However, the message does not make it to Service C. Instead, a runtime error is raised by a service agent
that does not support encryption. This service agent only requires access to the message header in order
to route the message to the appropriate instance of Service C. It is therefore decided that the header part
of the message will not be encrypted. Which of the following can be used to address this requirement?
A. certificate authority
B. SAML
C. non-repudiation
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.1 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.2 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.3 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.6 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.1 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date
and
quantity. To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization"?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account
group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account
group
Answer:A,C,D

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NO.4 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase
requisitions with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements
in
requirements planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of
supply in the source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item
using "Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor"
indicator in the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In
the
future, you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups,
valuation classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles
to the new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to
the new material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles
to the new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the
advertising articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.7 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.8 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C-TSCM52-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C_TADM51_70
Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 (C_TADM51_70)
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NO.1 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java? (Choose
three.)
A. A UDDI provider
B. The database of the AS Java
C. A client of an AS ABAP based SAP system
D. A directory server (LDAP)
E. A file (also called secure store)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is correct regarding transport domains and transport groups in
ABAP-based SAP Systems? (Choose two.)
A. All SAP Systems within one transport group have a common transport directory.
B. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain table), into
which all transports (exports or imports) in the SAP System are logged.
C. All SAP Systems in a transport domain must belong to the same transport group.
D. A transport domain can only be set up if more than one application server is installed.
E. All SAP Systems within one transport domain have RFC destinations (names beginning with "TMS...")
pointing to the same transport domain controller system.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 In SAP NetWeaver 7.0, several components need the ABAP and the JAVA stack. The customer has
decided to install both stacks in one database. A default schema user is created for each stack. In which
Oracle database table are these users physically stored and how are they named? The SAP is LNX and
the instance number is 03. (Choose two.)
A. TablE.dba_users; JAVA schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>DB
B. TablE.dba_user; Java user: ORALNXDB
C. TablE.users; ABAP and JAVA Schema owner: SAPLNX
D. TablE.dba_users; ABAP schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>
E. TablE.dba_user; ABAP schema owner: ORALNX
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following are repository objects in an AS ABAP-based SAP system? (Choose two.)
A. Screens (Dynpros)
B. Buffer areas
C. Programs
D. Client-independent customizing settings
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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NO.6 Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? (Choose two.)
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 The Integrated Log Viewer is presented as a service of SAP NetWeaver AS Java. It provides runtime
control for working with log messages.
Which of the following statements about the Integrated Log Viewer is true?
A. The Integrated Log Viewer can merge logs within an SAP NetWeaver AS Java instance.
B. The Integrated Log Viewer provides options for log and trace configuration. You can add new locations
and categories and change the configuration of the existing ones.
C. Log Viewer is the right tool for setting and modifying Severity levels.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Regarding the object, TemSe, of the SAP spool system, which of the following statements are correct.?
(Choose two.)
A. TemSe stores, for example, spool data.
B. TemSe always stores the spool requests in the database.
C. The instance parameter "rspo/store_location" determines where TemSe data is stored.
D. TemSe is always an operating system file.
Answer: A,C

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