2013年8月1日星期四

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Exam Code: ES0-005

Exam Name: RES Software (RES Automation Manager 2011 Basic Exam)

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NO.1 With what setting is an administrator able to control when to download a Resource to a Dispatcher?
A. Dispatcher discovery
B. Dispatcher cache timing
C. Dispatcher cache duration
D. Dispatcher cache availability
Answer: B

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NO.2 When an Agent is reverted to a snapshot. Snapshot Intelligence will:
detect and record this event in the Audit trail of the Agent
re-apply job history automatically depending on the Agent setting
remove the old snapshot from the snapshot repository
match the Agents job history to the actual change history on the Agent
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. l,2and4only
D. 1,3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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NO.3 Run Book Automation
A. can reduce unplanned downtime.
B. increases end-user productivity.
C. provides a consistent user workspace.
D. is indifferent of the end user's operating system
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can an administrator create a user with the following options.?
First Name: Amanda
Last Name: Cavendish
Primary mail-address: amanda_cavendish@d-energy.com
LogonName: CavendishA
Display Name: Amanda Cavendish
The following Parameters are available:
FirstName
LastName
A. The administrator needs more Parameters to achieve this in RES Automation Manager.
B. Enter all applicable fields in a .CSV file, create the Parameters Firstname and Lastname and enter
them when scheduling the job.
C. Create a task, create active directory user with the following options: FirstNarne = $[FirstbTame]
LastName = $[LastName] DisplayName = $[FirstName] $[LastName] LogonName =
$[LastbTame]@substring($[FirstName],l,l) MailAddress=$[FirstName]_$[LastName]@denergy.com
D. Create a task, create active directory user with the following options: FirstNarne = $[FirstbTame]
LastName = $[LastName] DisplayName = $[FirstName] $[LastName]LogonName =
$[LastName]@replace($[FirstName],l,l) MailAddress=$[FirstName]_$[LastName]@d-energy.com
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is planning an RES Automation Manager environment. Since bandwidth in the
environment is limited, the RES Automation Manager wants to limit download speed between the Agents
and Dispatchers. How can this be achieved?
A. Deploy additional Dispatchers to distribute the load.
B. Set up Resource download throttling.
C. Set up Master Caching.
D. Set up bandwidth throttling.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given the following Parameters and values, what will the value of PARM3 be?
PARMl=ThisIsATestl23
PARM2=AnotherTest321
PAPM3=@PEPLACE($[PARM1 ], 1,2)
A. @PEPLACE($[PARM2], 1,2)
B. ThisIsATest223
C. AnotherTest321
D. AnotherTest322
Answer: B

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NO.7 An administrator disables a Module that is also used in a Project. The disabled Module is
A. disabled in the Project
B. deleted from the Project.
C. enabled in the Project.
D. invisible in the Project.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator has a Connector for a mail server and needs a new Connector on a directory server.
However, not enough licenses are available to accomplish this. Therefore the administrator decides to
use the licenses from the mail server Connector. "Which steps are necessary?
A. Edit the properties of the Connector and change the type to directory server.
B. Delete all objects which are using the mail server Connector, delete this Connector and create a new
Connector for directory server.
C. Create a second Connector for directory server and disable the Connector for the mail server.
D. Delete the Connector for the mail server and create a new Connector for the directory server.
Answer: D

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NO.9 If not enough licenses are available, how does the RES Automation Manager decide which Agents get
the licenses that are available?
A. The Agent deployed the first will get the first license and so on.
B. Every Agent which comes online receives a license automatically, leaving another Agent unlicensed
and so on.
C. The Agents closest to the Datastorereceivesa license first.
D. Licenses are divided randomly on the Agents.
Answer: A

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NO.10 How many licenses are required when running Connectors on one mail server, one directory server and
one database server?
A. 46 licenses
B. 49 licenses
C. 53 licenses
D. 56 licenses
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which three features are provided by Oracle Net Services? (Choose three.)
A.data encryption
B.user authentication
C.transparent data conversion
D.configuration and administration mechanisms
E.support for multiple network transport protocols
Answer: CDE

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NO.2 In which scenario would you open the database with the RESETLOGS option after recovering the
database in NOARCHIVELOG mode?
A.when the control file is corrupted
B.when the SYSTEM data file is corrupted
C.when a nonsystem data file is corrupted
D.when the redo log files were not backed up
E.when there are no backups available to be restored
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which option must you specify in the sqlnet.ora file on the client machines to enable clients to use the
host naming method?
A.names.addresses
B.names.default_domain
C.names.directory_path
D.names.preferred_servers
E.sqlnet.authentication_services
Answer: C

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NO.4 When CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP is set to ON, RMAN automatically performs a
control file autobackup in which three situations? (Choose three.)
A.at the end of every RUN block
B.after every SET CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP FORMAT command
C.after every BACKUP or COPY command issued at the RMAN prompt
D.at the end of every RUN block if the last command in the block was either BACKUP or COPY
E.whenever a BACKUP or COPY command within a RUN block is followed by a command that is neither
BACKUP nor COPY
F.after every BACKUP or COPY command within a RUN block that is followed by the CONFIGURE
CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP FORMAT command
Answer: CDE

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NO.5 You are using RMAN to perform a backup of your database. Which statement is true regarding image
copy backups?
A.Image copy backups cannot be parallelized.
B.An image copy can be written only to tape.
C.An image copy backup is performed by using the RMAN BACKUP command.
D.During an image copy backup, blocks are checked to make sure that they are not corrupted.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in ARCHIVELOG mode.
As a DBA, you know that database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy
containing a weekly closed database backup. The local naming method is used by clients to connect to
the database.
Which files should you include in this weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control file
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.archived log files
D.tnsnames.ora file
E.listener configuration file
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Because your business requirements do not permit you to shut down the database to perform backups,
you decide to perform online backups. You use the ALTER TABLESPACE .. BEGIN BACKUP command
to perform the backups. The command returns the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01123: cannot start online backup; media recovery not enabled
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The database is in the MOUNT state.
B.The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
C.The command was executed on the SYSTEM tablespace.
D.The command was executed on a temporary tablespace.
E.The command was executed on a read-only tablespace.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You plan to perform a backup of the control file in your database. Which two statements regarding the
control file backup are true? (Choose two.)
A.You can back up the control file to a binary file.
B.You must bring the database to the NOMOUNT state to perform the control file backup.
C.You must store all types of control file backups in the location defined by USER_DUMP_DEST.
D.You can back up the control file by generating a script that can be used to re-create the control file.
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Which user-managed backup performed on your database can be labeled as consistent?
A.a backup performed when the database is open
B.a backup performed on a tablespace after putting the tablespace into backup mode
C.a backup performed when the database is closed by using the SHUTDOWN ABORT command
D.a backup performed when all data files and control files are checkpointed with respect to the same
system change number (SCN)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Your database contains 10 tablespaces and is functioning in NOARCHIVELOG mode. You want to
use Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform backups. Which two backups would you be able to perform
when the database is being accessed by users? (Choose two.)
A.backup of offline tablespaces
B.backup of read-only tablespaces
C.backup of system-critical tablespaces
D.backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E.backup of read/write, dictionary-managed tablespaces
Answer: AB

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NO.11 You are using Recovery Manager (RMAN) to maintain daily backups of your database, which is running
in ARCHIVELOG mode. In which two scenarios would you perform an incomplete database recovery
using UNTIL TIME from the backups that you maintain using RMAN? (Choose two.)
A.when a table is dropped
B.when a table is truncated
C.when the SYSTEM tablespace is corrupted
D.when the data block in a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
E.when a data file that belongs to a nonsystem tablespace is corrupted
Answer: AB

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NO.12 While starting up the database on a Monday morning, you get the following error after the database is
mounted:
ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 9 - see DBWR trace file
ORA-01110: data file 9: '/u01/oracle/app/oradata/orcl/users01.dbf'
While investigating, you realize that a backup of the data file (users01.dbf) exists. Which data dictionary
view would you use to locate the archived redo log files that are required for recovery?
A.V$ARCHIVED_LOG
B.V$RECOVERY_LOG
C.V$RECOVER_FILE
D.V$RECOVERY_STATUS
Answer: B

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NO.13 You want to perform a backup of the control file by using the following command:
ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
In which situation would the command fail?
A.The database is in the MOUNT state.
B.The database is in the NOMOUNT state.
C.The database has multiplexed control files
D.The database is opened and is in read-only mode.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two statements regarding backup sets are true? (Choose two.)
A.A backup set may contain both data files and control files.
B.Each file in a backup set must have the same Oracle block size.
C.A backup set may contain both data files and archived redo log files.
D.A backup set may contain both a control file and archived redo log files.
Answer: AB

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NO.15 Last Friday, you performed a closed database backup of your database that is running in
NOARCHIVELOG mode. On Monday morning, you discover that the media that contains one of the data
files is corrupted. Now, you need to recover your database.
Which two tasks would you perform before you start recovering the database? (Choose two.)
A.restore all data files
B.restore password files
C.restore the control files
D.restore the redo log files
E.restore the parameter file
F.restore the server parameter file
G.restore the corrupted data file only
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which backups can be performed without shutting down the instance? (Choose all that apply.)
A.an image copy backup
B.a backup of the database running in NOARCHIVELOG mode
C.a backup of dictionary-managed tablespace if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode.
D.a backup of the database when all read/write datafiles and control files are checkpointed with respect to
the same system change number (SCN).
Answer: AC

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NO.17 You have set the control file autobackup to ON by using the following command in the Recovery
Manager (RMAN):
CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A.when a tablespace is added
B.when the database instance is restarted
C.when a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
D.when the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer: AC

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NO.18 You work on a database that is used for application development and operates in NOARCHIVELOG
mode. The database has 10 tablespaces out of which two are read only. As a DBA, you know that
database downtime can be tolerated and have designed a backup strategy containing a weekly closed
database backup.
Which files can you exclude from the weekly user-managed backup? (Choose all that apply.)
A.control files
B.sqlnet.ora file
C.tnsnames.ora file
D.data files associated with read-only tablespaces
E.data files associated with read/write tablespaces
Answer: BCD

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NO.19 SQL*Loader is a utility that can perform which two tasks? (Choose two.)
A.load data from a disk, tape, or named pipes
B.load data into an Oracle database using DML statements
C.extract, reorganize, and insert data within an Oracle database
D.load data from external files into tables in an Oracle database
E.load data into an Oracle database using operating system commands
F.load data directly from a non-Oracle database to an Oracle database
Answer: AD

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NO.20 You started your database at 7:30 a.m. and you backed up three copies of all existing archived log
files to tape at 9:00 a.m. At 10:30 a.m., you executed the following command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 4;
At 1:00 p.m., you executed the following commands:
RMAN> CONFIGURE BACKUP OPTIMIZATION ON;
RMAN> BACKUP DEVICE TYPE sbt COPIES 2 ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Other RMAN configuration parameters are set to their default values. Which statement is correct?
A.RMAN would back up the logs which do not have four copies until 1:00 p.m.
B.RMAN would back up all logs that were created between 7:30 a.m. and 1:00 p.m.
C.RMAN would back up all logs that were created between 10:30 a.m. and 1:00 p.m.
D.RMAN would back up all logs that were not backed up, with two copies for logs created before 1:00
p.m.
Answer: D

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NO.1 At Big Corporation, users enter a username and password to log on at the web server. When
they enter Workspace, they are not prompted to logon. This is an example of _______
authentication.
A.Transparent
B.Token
C.Servlet
D.Service
Correct:A

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NO.2 Hong Boa needs to create a user for BI+ within the Big Corporation System 9 implementation.
He opens a request with IT. Which Shared Services role does Hong need in order to enable users
to access BI+?
A.Provisioning Manager
B.Provisioning Administrator
C.Directory Manager
D.Project Manager
E.Global Administrator
Correct:A

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NO.3 What is the first step when installing BI+?
A.Install the studios
B.Install the base services
C.Install the license server
D.Create a Hyperion Home directory
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which three tasks must be completed prior to installing BI+? (Choose three.)
A.Create a repository database and user accounts
B.Install the database client on the server for Shared Services
C.Create a domain account
D.Obtain a license file
Correct:A C D

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NO.5 A batch is a set of reports created in: (Choose two.)
A.Financial Reporting
B.Interactive Reporting
C.Web Analysis
D.Dashboard Studio
E.Workspace
Correct:A E

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NO.1 You setup MTS for the PROD database, which uses multiple listeners to handle
requests. Which listener control command can you issue for each listener that the
dispatchers have registered with all listeners used by the database?
A. DISPATCHER<listener name>
B. SHOW ALL
C. SERVICES<listener name>
D. SHOW SERVICES<listener name>
E. SHOW DISPATCHER<listener name>
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which folder would you use in the Net8 Assistant Tool to change the naming
method?
A. Profile
B. Configuration
C. Service Names
D. Oracle Names Server
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose two)
A. Connection exchange.
B. Connection resolution.
C. Connection multiplexing.
D. Connection cross-linking.
E. Protocol transformation.
F. Protocol interchange capability.
Answer: C, F

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NO.4 The initial number of dispatchers is set to 50. Because of the load on the dispatcher
processes the DBA needs to decrease the number of dispatchers. Which two
recommended procedures could be used? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM command to remove dispatchers.
B. Issue the ALTER SESSION command to remove dispatchers.
C. Edit the MTS_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
D. Edit the MTS_MAX_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
E. Edit the MTS_MIN_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get
pre-spawned in a dedicated server environment? (Do not use any extra words or
characters)
Answer: MTS_MAX_SERVERS

NO.6 Which NAMESCTL command can be used to manually force Names Server discovery?
A. Flush
B. Reload
C. Reorder_NS
D. Discover_NS
E. Start_client_cache
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are using host naming. Which components need to be installed?
A. Net8 on the server and the client machine.
B. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the client machine.
C. TCP/IP and Net8 only on the server machine.
D. TCP/IP and Net8 on the server and the client machine.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which naming method simplifies administrative tasks when configuration changes
need to be made available to all clients immediately?
A. Host Naming
B. Local Naming
C. Service Naming
D. Centralized Naming
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which process picks up a request from a response queue?
A. Client process
B. Listener process
C. Dispatcher process
D. Shared server process
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which file is the information that host naming is enabled stored?
A. Init.ora
B. Sqlnet.ora
C. Tnsnames.ora
D. Listener.ora
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two are tasks of the dispatcher process? (Choose two)
A. Receiving connection requests.
B. Placing a request in the request queue.
C. Updating the listener with new LOAD values.
D. Determining if the client request can be processed.
Answer: B, C

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NO.12 If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to
stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password
D. Shutdown immediate
Answer: C

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NO.13 How many response queues are present in a multithreaded server environment?
A. One per system.
B. One per database.
C. One per listener.
D. One per dispatcher.
Answer: D

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NO.14 When is the request sent to a listener?
A. After every call.
B. Before every call.
C. After name resolution.
D. Before name resolution.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which feature needs to be configured in Connection Manager to enable your system to
scale to a large number of users?
A. Connection Pooling
B. Network access control
C. Connection concentration
D. Multiple protocol interchange
Answer: C

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NO.16 When configuring for multiple protocol interchange, what does Source_Route
indicate?
A. Enables connections through Connection Manager.
B. Identifies the service name to which the connection needs to be established.
C. Identifies the database SID to which the connection needs to be established.
D. Identifies the node and the port number on which connection manager is running.
Answer: A

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NO.17 The listener audit trail provides information about every client connection request.
Which additional request about the client is NOT provided?
A. Client user ID
B. Database user name
C. Network protocol
D. Client host (platform)
Answer: B

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NO.18 A DBA has installed and configured Net8 TCP/IP on the client and the server but is
still unable to connect from Windows NT Workstation using SQL*Plus to an Oracle
instance running on a remote UNIX server. However there are no problems when
using FTP between two nodes. What actions next taken by the DBA could make
progress towards diagnosing the problem?
A. Attempting to PING the server from the client.
B. Checking to see if the DNS configuration is correct.
C. Connecting by using the Net8 Assistant Test Connection feature.
D. Checking to see if the TNS ping process is running on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is True?
A. Logging cannot be disabled on client.
B. There are four levels of logging that can be set.
C. Tracing can take up significant disk space but has little impact on performance.
D. There is no way to prevent new trace data from being appended to the same file with
each new session.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is true regarding connection breaks?
A. In-band breaks are faster than out-band breaks.
B. In-band breaks use messages that invoke operating system signals.
C. In-band breaks are issued to the server process by the operating system.
D. Out-band breaks send urgent data messages and are faster than in-band breaks.
E. There are no fundamental differences between in-band breaks and out-band breaks.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?
A. Use the repos.py command with the --new option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
B. Use the repos.py command with the --new option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository.
C. Use the repos.py command with the--new option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository and a device path.
D. Use the repos.py command with the path. root option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
E. Use the repos.py command with the--root option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0
and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0, and the guest.
Answer: A

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NO.3 When converting hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in vm.cfq is
likely leftover from the HVM configuration?
A. vnclisten = '0.0.0.0'
B. pae =1
C. builder= hvm
D. serial= pty
Answer: D

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NO.4 What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0
and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest
Answer: C

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NO.6 What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover process.?
A. OCFS2
B. Server Pool Master
C. Oracle Clusterware
D. utility server
E. virtual machine server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?
A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template D B) JeOS license file
B. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
C. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System.img E) Template reconfiguration scripts
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which disk protocol is the default disk type for disks in a paravirtualized guest?
A. HD (IDE)
B. SD (SCSI)
C. XVD
D. RAW
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the effect of running a server pool restores?
A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database
Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers is used to restock the
database.
B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in the database is
removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.
C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be deleted, and will be
synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager database. The server pool master
is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM servers' agent databases.
D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which responds with the
current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to restore the data in the Oracle VM
database.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?
A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no
charge.
B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is
included at no charge.
C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager
license and support contract is purchased for each server.
D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager
license and support contract is purchased for one server.
E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager support is
purchased for one server.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A low priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the two valid
network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 A virtual machine is copied onto portable media and transferred to another machine In a different server
pool. The virtual machine is then run on the new host, but it falls to boot. What are two potential
problems?
A. The virtual machine was not exported properly using the Oracle VM Manager.
B. The virtual machine configuration file needs to be changed to update the new paths to its virtualdisks.
C. The virtual machine configuration file lists bridges that do not exist on the new host.
D. The virtual machine has not been registered with Oracle VM yet.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the purpose of the use command
In the CLI?
A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool argument.
B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual
machine argument.
C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name argument.
D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server argument.
E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group argument.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands can help
troubleshoot the networking?
A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can be used to see
which bridge is having problems.
B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having problems.
C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This canthen be
used to determine which bridge is having problems.
D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see which arehaving
problems.
E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help determine
which bridge is having problems.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When an Oracle VM server starts, by default how does it map physical NICs to Xen bridges?
A. Each physical NIC is mapped to one or more virtual networks, each of which is assigned a Xen bridge.
B. One Xen bridge will be created for each physical NIC.
C. All physical NICs are mapped to a single Xen bridge.
D. No mapping of physical NICs to Xen bridges is done by default.
E. The first physical NIC is assigned to dom0's management; a Xen bridge is then created for each of the
remaining cards.
Answer: B

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NO.1 An existing web application uses JSPs to communicate directly to a database. Small changes to the
database result in business logic changes to many JSPs. The single JSP developer, who was also the
graphic artist, has just quit the project. In addition, the company needs to add a web services-based
interface to the application. You have been hired as the architect to refactor the web application. Which
two changes should you make to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. introduce a separate presentation layer with different views for HTML and XML
B. add an abstraction layer between the database and JSPs to encapsulate business logic
C. develop a DAO layer to encapsulate the database access that can be used by all the JSPs
D. add new JSPs for the XML and use <jsp:include> to incorporate the existing business logic
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You are designing a company e-Commerce site. The site will be hosted on a single powerful server
that has sufficient CPU, memory, storage, and network bandwidth so that clustering is not needed. The
architecture must maintain session state including a shopping cart and recent searches. JSP and JPA
have already been selected as the presentation tier and persistence tier implementations, respectively.
What do you recommend as the most appropriate way to maintain session state in the application?
A. an entity bean
B. stateful session beans
C. the HttpSession object
D. a message-driven bean
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are architecting a complex multi-tiered web application. Within each tier you have designed layers,
the lowest being the hardware layer and the highest being the application layer. Which statement is true?
A. Generally, a given layer in one tier of this application should be concerned with the technology used in
the same layer of adjacent tiers.
B. To maximize separation of concerns, a given layer in a tier of this application should only have
knowledge of the adjacent layer in that tier.
C. For any given tier, separation of concerns is fulfilled when a given layer in that tier knows or needs to
know little or nothing of the layers below it.
D. If the layers in one tier of the application have been designed to achieve separation of
concerns, then the remaining tiers also achieve separation of concerns by default.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which Java EE feature helps facilitate migration to SOA?
A. Stateful session beans can be exposed as web services.
B. Stateless session beans can be exposed as web services.
C. Stateful session beans support local and remote interfaces.
D. Stateless session beans support local and remote interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A Java EE travel agency application builds flight itineraries and needs to provide runtime
monitoring to external clients. Agency managers need to find out at any given time how many itineraries
have been started but not completed. This information should be made available to managers at runtime
using open-source or commercially available management tools. The instrumentation should be done
with a standard Java EE API. How should you instrument the application?
A. JPA
B. JMX
C. JMS
D. SNMP
Answer: B

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NO.6 A successful web application is used by over two hundred thousand users. Due to this substantial load,
the database is overburdened and fails frequently. All data, including critical user records and temporary
session data, are stored in the database. Because of resource constraints, a new database system
cannot be installed. Which change will reduce the load on the database?
A. create more entity beans to optimize the interaction with the database
B. refactor the web application to use DAOs to communicate with the database
C. refactor the web application to store temporary session data on the web servers
D. add more web servers to the web tier to distribute the load and reduce the number of
transactions on the database
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company has a legacy system that it is going to use Java EE technology to re-engineer. The legacy
solution consists of active server pages and a relational database. The company is interested in changing
DB vendors in the future and this requirement is key to moving forward.
This is a web-based transactional sales system. The company will keep the relational database schema
because it still meets business requirements and will not require re-engineering. What is
the best solution?
A. JSP, JDBC only
B. JSP, servlets, JDBC only
C. JSF, servlets, JPA, EJB3
D. JSF, servlets, DAO, JDBC
Answer: C

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NO.8 What describes the design relationship between session beans and entity beans?
A. aggregation
B. separation of concerns
C. common reuse principle
D. Liskov substitution principle
E. interface segregation principle
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two advantages of using encapsulation in a multi-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Business components inherit behavior from the web container.
B. Complex web container behavior can be hidden behind simple interfaces.
C. Business logic can be modified without modifying objects that depend on it.
D. Database records can be accessed directly from the web tier to improve scalability and
performance.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 A company architected and developed a Java EE application and now they are having problems with
the scalability of the system. The application uses JSPs and servlets deployed to a web container, and
stateless session beans and DAOs deployed to an EJB container. The application's non-functional
requirement for scalability is to support 500 concurrent users during peak hours of operation. The
application can currently support 500 concurrent users, but the response time is 200 percent of what it is
acceptable. You have been hired as an architect and have been assigned to help resolve this problem.
The company's management is concerned with the hardware budgeting. What initial advice would you
give to the company?
A. add another web server
B. start a new project to re-architect the application
C. monitor the application to determine the potential problem areas
D. add more memory and processors to the hardware hosting the EJB container
Answer: C

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NO.11 A company is in the business of distributing hard candies. The distribution of these candies is
automated and the system that helps track information about candy distribution is written in Java
technology. The business unit for the company has been asking the IT group to provide a flexible
reporting system to track detailed information. A large amount of data about candy is stored using a DAO
layer, but little is used. What is the best solution for the IT group to implement to provide the most flexibility
for the business unit?
A. refactor the DAOs to include additional static queries to pull information and export a
spreadsheet for the business unit to review
B. implement an ad-hoc query tool exposed using JSF that allows business units to create queries and
produce results in a given format
C. provide a JSP page, which has scriptlets that expose pre-defined queries for the business unit to
execute and display in HTML
D. create a web service that exposes fixed queries invoked by a JSP client that can pull data from the
database and export in a given format
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which application would NOT be a good candidate for an EJB-centric implementation of the business
tier?
A. an application that transfers money between accounts
B. a news-oriented web site that receives millions of hits a day
C. an application with business logic that calls third-party web services
D. a small workflow-oriented application to provision and deprovision employee accounts
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are architecting an online ordering application with these requirements:
Users access the system over the Internet using HTML.
An email message is sent to the user confirming the order.
Users must log in and are validated using LDAP.
The product catalog is stored in a relational database.
All orders are logged to the internal fulfillment system.
Orders must not be lost.
Which Java EE technology should be used to send orders to the fulfillment system?
A. JNDI
B. JMS
C. JAX-WS
D. RMI-IIOP
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to
be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE
technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are three web service support features in Java EE? (Choose three.)
A. generating a web service from an MDB
B. generating a Java class from a WSDL file
C. associating a Java class with a WSDL file
D. associating a JMS queue with a WSDL file
E. generating a web service from a stateful session bean
F. generating a web service from a stateless session bean
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.16 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.17 Which two characteristics are NOT important factors in the selection of a web application framework
for a large project? (Choose two.)
A. complexity of the framework
B. degree of usage in the industry
C. availability of a unit test framework
D. reusability of model and view components
E. separation of concerns afforded by the framework
F. level of integration with common logging frameworks
Answer: C,F

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NO.18 You are architecting a new Internet-deployed application and you want to restrict access to parts of the
system for security purposes. Which three security restrictions can be specified in the deployment
descriptor according to the servlet API specification standards? (Choose three.)
A. on page forwarding
B. on encryption methods
C. based on the role name
D. based on the user name
E. based on the URL pattern
F. based on the HTTP method
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.19 You work for a small IT shop. The developers are responsible for deploying production
applications. All of the connection and resource parameters are distributed in the Java source code. Your
IT shop has a limited infrastructure so there have been few issues with pushing production applications.
Your IT shop has been purchased and is now reselling Java products to customers. You now have
dedicated development, testing, staging, and production environments. A new requirement states that
these applications must support rapid deployment to each environment. What is the best solution.?
A. refactor the Java application to use JNDI names and resource references
B. identify a build engineer that has the responsibility of modifying the constant class for each deployment
C. set your connection properties in a constants class to consolidate connection and resource parameters
D. identify the environment parameters for connection and resources and make them readily available to
developers
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about the Flyweight pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It allows a single instance of a class to virtually represent many instances.
B. When used appropriately it can reduce memory demands on your servers.
C. It allows for many instances of a class to be controlled by a single instance.
D. It allows many tightly related, homogeneous objects to each maintain their own state.
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service
consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported
by service providers
Answer: A

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NO.2 Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization - Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use
of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility - Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT
Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model - Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital
expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased
operational cost.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are
assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite
application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without
any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and
generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while
composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.6 Conceptually, the ORA model of a "modern UI" defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the
user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of
devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser
type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F. Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any
number of back-end systems into the user interface.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.7 Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols,
and development tools.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others,
regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat
rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference
Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated
into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be
followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented
architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the
Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering
Answer: B,C,G,H

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NO.12 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service
Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you
have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to
communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and
products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be
products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating
the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific
products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO
cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies,
but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset
Answer: C

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NO.15 There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented
Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services
network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage
the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer.
The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The
maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-
The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used
by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides
connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the
operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to
deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator
access to all hardware and software.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing.?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different
security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin
order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many
point-point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.18 Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following
statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and
third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in
various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently
portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable
across multiple applications.
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and
the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the
architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service
identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in
Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services
exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down
approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up
approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down
approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap
between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should
Answer: D

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