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Exam Code: HH0-450
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Architect-Hitachi NAS Platform)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
120 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target (server)
discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two are
required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution primarily for
data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which "SATA Write &
Compare" mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform (HCP).
Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer is planning a disaster recovery site and they need to know the form factors of the
Hitachi NAS Platform models for physical planning purposes. Which two statements are correct ?
(Choose two.)
A. The 3090 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 3 rack units high.
B. The 3080 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 2 rack units high.
C. The 3200 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 4 rack units high.
D. The 3090 and 3100 fit into a 19 inch rack and are of the same height.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of SATA
drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an externalized Hitachi
AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the system and users. Which two
products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A customer is running a multimedia based application and is looking for a Hitachi NAS Platform 3200
solution that is capable of generating 2 GB/s throughput using the NFS protocol. They will reuse an
existing Hitachi USP V and attach it behind the Hitachi NAS Platform. What information should you gather
before designing a solution meeting the customer's business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. percentage of read and writes
B. number of file systems
C. NIS server details
D. number of FEDs and BEDs
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration service?
(Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 Why should you set superflush in a Hitachi NAS Platform?
A. to improve read performance
B. to improve write performance
C. to flush data from the NVRAM to the sector cache
D. to flush data from the sector cache to the storage system
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi storage
systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever possible. Which
two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000 Family
storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would cause all of the
EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
B. XENPAK
C. SFP+
D. XFP
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential performance
and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 of
the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 on
the USP V.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand their
existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools.?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which Hitachi
NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
Answer: C

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NO.17 A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need to
complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their production
services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the customer prior to the
major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers are
relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users' tasks and responsibilities
Answer: B

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NO.20 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires file
level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large numbers of
files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What should be done to
reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HD0-300
Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Manager)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
176 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.3 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.20 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
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decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Switching Networks)
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Exam Name: Guidance Software (Certification Exam For ENCE North America)
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NO.1 Which is the proper formula for determining the size in bytes of a hard drive that uses
cylinders (C), heads (H), and sectors (S) geometry?
A. C X H + S
B. C X H X S + 512
C. C X H X S X 512
D. C X H X S
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
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A. Bob@New zealand.com
B. Bob@My-Email.com
C. Bob@America.com
D. Bob@a-z.com
Answer: C

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NO.3 In Unicode, one printed character is composed of ____ bytes of data.
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C. 2
D. 1
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A. False
B. True
Answer:

NO.5 ROM is an acronym for:
A. Read Open Memory
B. Random Open Memory
C. Read Only Memory
D. Relative Open Memory
Answer: C

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NO.6 EnCase uses the _________________ to conduct a signature analysis.
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B. file signature table
C. hash library
D. file Viewers
Answer: B

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NO.7 How are the results of a signature analysis examined?
A. By sorting on the category column in the Table view. By sorting on the category
column in the Table view.
B. By sorting on the signature column in the Table view. By sorting on the signature
column in the Table view.
C. By sorting on the hash sets column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash sets
column in the Table view.
D. By sorting on the hash library column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash
library column in the Table view.
Answer: B

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NO.8 If cluster #3552 entry in the FAT table contains a value of ?? this would mean:
A. The cluster is unallocated
B. The cluster is the end of a file
C. The cluster is allocated
D. The cluster is marked bad
Answer: A

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NO.9 Hash libraries are commonly used to:
A. Compare a file header to a file extension.
B. Identify files that are already known to the user.
C. Compare one hash set with another hash set.
D. Verify the evidence file.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A physical file size is:
A. The total size in sectors of an allocated file.
B. The total size of all the clusters used by the file measured in bytes.
C. The total size in bytes of a logical file.
D. The total size of the file including the ram slack in bytes.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
that would result. Jan 1 st , 2?0?00
A. Jan 1st , 1900
B. Jan 1st , 2100
C. Jan 1st , 2001
D. Jan 1st , 2000
Answer: D

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NO.12 EnCase is able to read and examine which of the following file systems?
A. NTFS
B. EXT3
C. FAT
D. HFS
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.13 The default export folder remains the same for all cases.
A. True
B. False
Answer:

NO.14 Search results are found in which of the following files? Select all that apply.
A. The evidence file
B. The configuration Searches.ini file
C. The case file
Answer: C

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NO.15 If cluster number 10 in the FAT contains the number 55, this means:
A. That cluster 10 is used and the file continues in cluster number 55.
B. That the file starts in cluster number 55 and continues to cluster number 10.
C. That there is a cross-linked file.
D. The cluster number 55 is the end of an allocated file.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Within EnCase, clicking on Save on the toolbar affects what file(s)?
A. All of the above
B. The evidence files
C. The open case file
D. The configuration .ini files
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are an investigator and have encountered a computer that is running at the home of a
suspect. The computer does not appear to be a part of a network. The operating system is
Windows XP Home. No programs are visibly running. You should:
A. Pull the plug from the back of the computer.
B. Turn it off with the power button.
C. Pull the plug from the wall.
D. Shut it down with the start menu.
Answer: A

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NO.18 The acronym ASCII stands for:
A. American Standard Communication Information Index
B. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C. Accepted Standard Code for Information Interchange
D. Accepted Standard Communication Information Index
Answer: B

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NO.19 The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that can be changed.
D. A global setting that cannot be changed.
Answer: B

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NO.20 When an EnCase user double-clicks on a file within EnCase what determines the action
that will result? Select all that apply
A. The settings in the case file.
B. The settings in the FileTypes.ini file.
C. The setting in the evidence file.
Answer: B

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NO.1 It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path
tree. This switch over will be initiated by:
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a
cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by
ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by the BSR towards all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are active
It is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by RP towards all PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose
three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP
address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups:
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
Answer: A

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NO.10 On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin
authentication. Extreme provides a vendor specific attribute
Extreme:Extreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is
disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.11 EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning
Tree Protocol but one of the big advantages of EAPS is:
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring default
gateway redundancy.
Answer: B

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NO.12 In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is
the:
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Answer: D

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NO.13 OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all
attachments are made with a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.14 Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.15 When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following
traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
Answer: A

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NO.17 Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis:
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.18 The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP
and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.19 An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Answer: D

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NO.20 According
to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet
from host A to any of the switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.21 In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration
that allows you to connect active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby
switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.22 ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their
protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.23 The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.24 An IP-only IS-IS router (or "IP-only" router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.25 An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control
VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring
only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.26 The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band
management port and VLAN. The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port
allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the switch. If you want the switch
to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to enable
ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.27 How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.28 In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port
Translation Mode the physical Port where the node connects to must be configured
as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.29 Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the
Radius and Tacacs+features.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.30 Exhibit:
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host
A (10.10.10.100) and Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EXIN (ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation)
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NO.1 Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type
B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. all service changes
B. formal closure of services
C. staff recruitment
D. user training
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the objective of a Management System?
A. to define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. to ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. to ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
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D. to provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
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Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. looking at Security Plans
B. looking at the cause of Incidents
C. looking at the Change Plan
D. looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. customer communication
B. employee motivation
C. social responsibility
D. standard products
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. channeling data to Problem Management
B. ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. following up on Incidents
D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being
achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of documented
requirements
B. the evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the
certification body
C. the notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. the official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. that business transactions between all parties are recorded
B. that information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. that it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. that the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the
customer organization.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client with
name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.2 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a problem with symmetric key cryptography?
A. It is slower than asymmetric key cryptography
B. Secure distribution of the public key
C. There is a lack of encryption protocols that can use symmetric key cryptography
D. Secure distribution of a secret key
E. Symmetric key cryptography is reserved for the NSA
Answer: D

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NO.4 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 You have just downloaded a new file, called scnpfile.tar.gz. You are going to verify the file prior to
un-archiving the file. Which command do you need to type to un-compress the file, prior to unarchiving?
A. tar xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
B. tar -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
C. gunzip scnpfile.tar.gz
D. gunzip -xvf scnpfile.tar.gz
E. gunzip -zxvf scnpfile.tar.gz
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are configuring the permissions to a file, called file1, on your Linux file server. You wish to change
the permissions to remove the execute permission from the others and group. Which of the following
commands will complete this task?
A. umask x-og file1
B. umask og-x file1
C. chmod xog- file1
D. chmod x-og file1
E. chmod og-x file1
Answer: E

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NO.8 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete
inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security
implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing
Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local
computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are discussing the design and infrastructure of the Internet with several colleagues when a
disagreement begins over the actual function of the NAP in the Internets design. What is the function of a
NAP in the physical structure of the Internet?
A. The NAP provides for a layered connection system of ISPs connecting to the backbone.
B. The NAP provides the actual connection point between a local user and the Internet.
C. The NAP provides the physical network with communication channels for the Internet and voice/data
applications.
D. The NAP provides a national interconnection of systems, called peering centers, to the NSPs.
E. The NAP provides for a connection point between an ISP and the backbone of the Internet.
Answer: E

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NO.11 Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind
of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program's password field. The reason that such tools can
uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are configuring the lines that control access to exported objects on your server running NFS. If you
have a directory called /Tech and you wish to export this directory to network 192.168.20.0/24, allowing
root access, and the permissions of read and write, which of the following lines will accomplish this?
A. (RW) no_root_squash /Tech 192.168.20.0/24
B. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24 (rw) no_root_squash
C. (RW) no_root_squash 192.168.20.0/24 /Tech
D. (RW)no_root_squash:/Tech 192.168.20.0/24
E. /Tech 192.168.20.0/24(rw) no_root_squash
Answer: E

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NO.13 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical
and Environmental Security.?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to
business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to
business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information
security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.15 To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network
andcomputers.
Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e whichof the
following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

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NO.16 As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on
Business Continuity Planning?
A. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure
that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
B. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
C. The objectives of this section are to counteract interruptions to business activities and to critical
business processes from the effects of major failures or disasters.
D. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or
contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with
organizational security policies and standards.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to
information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized
computer access.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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NO.18 On Monday, during a routine check of a users Windows workstation, you find the following program,
called regedit.bat on the users local hard drive:
Net localgroup administrators local /all Start regedit.exe Exit
What is this program capable of doing on this computer?
A. Nothing, the first line is coded wrong.
B. It will add the administrators to the local group
C. It will add the local user to all local groups
D. It will add the administrators to all local groups
E. It will add the local user to the administrators group
Answer: E

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NO.19 In the past it was, at times, difficult to locate current information on security vulnerabilities. What is the
name of the security communitys effort to create a comprehensive database of multiple vulnerabilities and
security tools?
A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exploits
B. Cataloged Venerations and Exposures
C. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exposures
E. Cataloged Vulnerabilities and Exploits
Answer: C

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NO.20 If you encrypt or decrypt files and folders located on a remote computer that has been enabled for
remote encryption; the data that is transmitted over the network by this process is not encrypted. In order
to keep data encrypted as it is transmitted over the network, which of the following must you do?
A. You must implement EFS.
B. You must implement B2 security for Windows.
C. You must use IPSec.
D. You must use a recovery agent.
E. You must transmit the entire folder, not individual files.
Answer: C

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NO.21 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = EK1[DK2[EK1[P]]] ) , what is the function of C?
A. C is the text before encryption
B. C is the first encryption key
C. C is the second encryption key
D. C is the decryption key
E. C is the text after encryption
Answer: E

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NO.22 In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the
following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.23 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented
in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and
forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why
(or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.24 Which of the following are symmetric encryption algorithms?
A. MD5
B. RSA
C. Diffie-Hellman
D. 3DES
E. AES
Answer: D,E

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NO.25 Often times attackers will run scans against the network to identify different network and operating
systems, and resources that are available. If an attacker runs scans on the network, and you are logging
the connections, which of the following represent the legitimate combination of packets that will be sent
between the attacker and target?
A. Attacker PSH-FIN Scan, Target RST-FIN Response
B. Attacker ACK Scan, Target NULL Response
C. Attacker NULL Scan, Target RST Response
D. Attacker SYN Scan, Target NULL Response
E. Attacker FIN Scan, Target RST Response
Answer: C,E

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NO.26 You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your
company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous
Social
Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the
writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to
speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the
receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and
software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in
evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to
reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP
to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network's configuration data and the
emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: D,E

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NO.27 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. NetBus Scan
B. Trojan Scan
C. Ping Sweep
D. Port Scan
E. Ping Sweep
Answer: D

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NO.28 During the configuration of your Linux system, you are working with the available drives in
thecomputer.
What syntax defines the First (Primary) IDE hard disk drive?
A. /dev/sda
B. /dev/fda
C. /dev/hd1
D. /dev/hda
E. /dev/fd1
Answer: D

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NO.29 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.30 During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information
that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the
information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of
information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: A,B,C,D

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