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Exam Code: 1Y0-800
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon and Load Testing)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
101 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What does an administrator need to do in order to enable secure communications from EdgeSight
Agents to server?
A.Select to enable SSL Support.
B.Select to disable SSL Support.
C.Install and configure third-party VPN.
D.Turn on the firewall on the agent device.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator just installed an EdgeSight Server in the environment.
Which two post-installation configuration items need to be defined after installing EdgeSight in the
environment?(Choose two.)
A.Company
B.Time Zone
C.Department
D.SNMP Trap Handler
Answer: A B

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NO.3 An administrator for EdgeSight needs to use Microsoft Excel to view reports __________. (Choose the
correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.of any type
B.locally on the agent
C.locally on the server
D.using real time remote function
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does the spectuser account access?
A.Microsoft SQL Server
B.Citrix EdgeSight Agent
C.Citrix EdgeSight Server
D.Microsoft SQL database
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator is creating a new user account which Reporting Services will use to connect to the
ReportServer Database.
Which two steps should the administrator complete when creating the new user account? (Choose two.)
A.Add the user account to a defined group.
B.Define security parameters for the user account.
C.Set a non-expiring password for the user account.
D.Grant the user account database access privileges.
Answer: C D

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NO.6 Scenario: A company recently purchased Citrix Edgsight 4.5 and plans to use a production Microsoft
SQL 2000 Server for the EdgeSight 4.5 database. The administrator wants to install all other EdgeSight
components onto a single server.
Which two components can the administrator install on the server separate from the Microsoft SQL 2000
database server? (Choose two.)
A.Citrix License Server
B.Citrix EdgeSight Agent
C.Citrix EdgeSight Server Console
D.Citrix EdgeSight Agent Deployment Server

NO.7 Scenario: The level two help desk forwards a call to the ministrator to help a user who is currently
experiencing difficulties accessing data from an application. The response times seem slow. The
administratordecides to collect real-time information to diagnose the issue.
Which report should the administrator use?
A.Alerts
B.System
C.Summary
D.Processes
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator needs to configure the agent to look for new alerts and/or new worker schedules more
than once a day.
Which worker configuration does the administrator need to configure to meet the requirements of the
scenario?
A.Asset History
B.Configuration Check
C.Fault Report Cleanup
D.Database Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.9 Scenario: A company currently has EdgeSight 4.5 deployed with a dual-server configuration. One
server hosts the Microsoft SQL atabase, the other is a web server hosting the remaining server-side
omponents. In an effort to improve performance, the administrator decided to create a tri-server
deployment model.
Which two components can the administrator move onto the third server? (Choose two.)
A.Citrix License Server
B.Citrix EdgeSight Server Console
C.Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ)
D.Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services
Answer: A D

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NO.10 What is minimally required for the web server component of the EdgeSight Server?
A.Microsoft Message Queuing
B.Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services 2000 Service Pack 1
C.Internet Information Services (IIS) 5.0 for Windows Server 2003
D.Microsoft SQL Server Service Pack 4 Standard Edition or greater
Answer: A

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NO.11 After installing an EdgeSight Server, which two things must an administrator create to complete the
appropriate post-installation configurations? (Choose two.)
A.Company
B.Department
C.Superuser account
D.Spectuser account
Answer: A C

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NO.12 Scenario: An administrator is designing a proof of concept (POC) for an EdgeSight 4.5 implementation.
The company will allocate only the minimum number of servers necessary for the POC. The
administrator has obtained license keys for the necessary software and wants to get the lab hardware
operational as quickly as possible.
What are the minimum number of EdgeSight servers needed for the project?
A.One
B.Two
C.Four
D.Three
Answer: A

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NO.13 After an initial EdgeSight Agent installation, the administrator must __________. (Choose the correct
phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.backup the EdgeSight database
B.restart the Citrix Licensing service
C.reboot the device onto which the EdgeSight Agent is installed
D.use the Citrix EdgeSight Post-Installation Setup Wizard to perform initial configurations
Answer: C

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NO.14 An administrator enabled SSL support for an EdgeSight Server. Now the certificate prevents remote
scripts from running and remote pages from displaying.
What does the administrator need to do to resolve the issue described in the scenario?
A.Enable SSL support on the agent.
B.Turn off SSL support on the server.
C.Put in an exception for port 9035 at the firewall.
D.Purchase another SSL certificate, as this one is corrupt.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The spectuser account is a __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A.Citrix EdgeSight Server user account that is used to communicate with the EdgeSight Agents
B.Microsoft SQL account that the EdgeSight Server uses to connect to its Microsoft SQL database
C.Microsoft SQL account that the EdgeSight Agent uses to connect to its Microsoft Access database
D.Citrix EdgeSight Agent user account that is used to communicate with Microsoft SQL Server Reporting
Services
Answer: B

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NO.16 When installing Citrix EdgeSight for Presentation Server Agents, which two items must be specified to
ensure that the EdgeSight Agent will be able to report to the EdgeSight Server without any errors?
(Choose two.)
A.Certificate authorities
B.Agent/Server communciation port
C.SNMP port the EdgeSight Server is using
D.Company name exactly as it appears in the EdgeSight Console
Answer: B D

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NO.17 Which three configurations does the web server component of the EdgeSight Server require? (Choose
three.)
A.ASP.NET allowed in IIS
B.Network COM+ access enabled
C.IIS_WPG users active and enabled
D.Active Server Pages (ASP) enabled
E.Microsoft SQL with mixed-mode authentication
Answer: A B C

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NO.18 Scenario: Following miscommunication during a rollout of new hard drives and memory, some devices
in theenvironment were not upgraded as planned. The IT Manager asked the administrator to identify the
devices thatwere upgraded.
Which type of report would the administrator use to obtain the necessary information?
A.Remote
B.Asset Change
C.Memory Upgrade
D.System Comparison
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Microsoft application does an administrator need to install on a device that is being used to view
real-time remote reports for EdgeSight?
A.Excel
B.Word
C.Notepad
D.WordPad
Answer: A

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NO.20 An administrator is going through the Post-Installation Wizard for an EdgeSight Server. The
administrator decides that the EdgeSight Agent will be deployed to user devices in the company.
Which option should the administrator select for the Server Mode to meet the needs of the scenario?
A.EndPoint Support Only
B.Server and EndPoint Support
C.Presentation Server Support Only
D.Presentation Server and EndPoint Support
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-A11
Exam Name: Citrix (Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
86 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The primary node of a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair failed over immediately at start up during
the initial testing of the system. Which configuration step can the administrator take to prevent this from
happening again?
A.Disable monitoring on all connected interfaces
B.Enable node monitoring on all primary node interfaces
C.Run the "force HA sync" command from the primary node
D.Execute the "disable interface" command for all unused interfaces
Answer:D

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NO.2 How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors
the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A.Use the default TCP monitor
B.Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C.Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D.Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E.Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer:C

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NO.3 An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is
functioning in the network environment. What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation
of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?
A.The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B.The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C.The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D.The request and response rates option in the Dashboard once te correct vserver is selected
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor
probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?
A.entityup
B.entitydown
C.monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D.monRespTimeoutBelowThresh
Answer:D

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NO.5 Scenario: A network administrator is deploying a NetScaler system in an environment with a single
subnet using this IP information: subnet: 192.168.10.32 netmask: 255.255.255.224 default gateway:
192.168.10.40 The administrator already set up the NSIP and MIP addresses using the command line
interface. Which command could the administrator use to complete this set up successfully?
A.add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.10.32
B.add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.10.40
C.add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.10.62
D.add route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.32
E.add route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.62
Answer:B

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NO.6 A NetScaler system is running with high CPU usage frequently. Which log can the administrator view
to determine if the high CPU is being caused by the processes running in the user space?
A.syslog
B.nswlog
C.newnslog
D.nsconmsg
Answer:C

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NO.7 A company is planning on implementing NetScaler systems in high availability pairs. Which entry in the
NS.CONF file of the secondary system needs to be unique from those of the primary system?
A.VMAC
B.VIP address
C.MIP address
D.NSIP address
Answer:D

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NO.8 Scenario: An administrator is planning on configuring health checks for services bound to web servers 1
and 2 which are listening on TCP port 80 for HTTP and TCP port 443 for HTTPS. Service1 receives the
encrypted traffic and Service 2 receives the clear text traffic. How should the administrator create the
monitor for Service1 using the command line interface?
A.set mon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -secure YES
B.add lb mon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -secure YES
C.set mon monitor-SVC1-Mon HTTP -transparent NO
D.add lb mon monitor-SVC1-Mon TCP -transparent NO
Answer:B

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NO.9 Scenario: An administrator set up a NetScaler system in a one-arm mode configuration with high
availability. The system failed over unexpectedly. Which two occurences could be causing this issue?
(Choose two.)
A.An interface is down
B.Layer 2 mode is disabled
C.An SSL acceleration card is down
D.The heartbeat is being sent every two seconds
Answer:A C

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NO.10 Scenario: A multinational company operates in areas where there is significant threat of natural
disaster. The administrator decides to create redundancy in their network because of a continuous power
outage threat at the South America site. The company also has two sites in North America, one near New
York and the other near the San Andreas fault line, a site of frequent earthquakes and tremors. The
company also has a site in Tokyo, Japan, which experiences several natural disaster threats. The
company plans to use a NetScaler system for load balancing and to prevent interruption of network
services because of a local natural or human disaster. Would a high availability (HA) deployment resolve
the issue described in the scenario, and if so, how should the HA nodes be paired? Click the Task button
to answer. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item. Answer &
Explanation Correct Answer Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.11 Scenario: An administrator installed a NetScaler system and configured the NSIP and MIP for the
system. The NetScaler system will be used primarily for load balancing in this environment. Which
additional step must the administrator take to ensure that the NetScaler system can perform the
necessary server load balancing in this environment?
A.Disable USIP mode on both nodes
B.Use the MIP as the NSIP for a high availability environment
C.Create VIPs for the front-end connections to the back-end servers
D.Enable USNIP mode for the front-end connections to the back-end servers
Answer:C

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NO.12 Where in the configuration utility can an administrator configure a NetScaler high availability pair to
ensure that specific interfaces are NOT monitored?
A.The root of the System node
B.The root of the Network node
C.The interface sub node in the System node
D.The interface sub node in the Network node
Answer:D

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NO.13 Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The
NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the back-end servers
except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of
connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers
should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address. On which entity should RNAT be
configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?
A.ACL
B.Client
C.Virtual server
D.Back-end server
Answer:A

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NO.14 Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the
bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so
that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds. How can the administrator create
the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A.set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B.add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C.set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D.add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer:D

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NO.15 An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A.redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B.redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C.the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 Gb/sec
D.the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8 Gb/sec
Answer:C

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NO.16 An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server
performance. Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether
server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?
A.Client connection count increases
B.Server side request rate increases
C.Client connection count decreases
D.Server side request rate decreases
Answer:D

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NO.17 An administrator notices that the CPU usage on a NetScaler system spikes for aproximately one
minute every two days. Which step can the administrator take to find out what is causing the spike?
A.View the syslog
B.Run events on newnslog
C.View the Dashboard statistics
D.Run the stat ns node command
Answer:B

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NO.18 An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
A.SNMP trap
B.SNMP user
C.SNMP group
D.SNMP community
Answer:D

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NO.19 Scenario: An administrator is planning the necessary configurations on a NetScaler system for an
environment that requires the NetScaler system to advertise virtual IP addresses, directly connected
routes and static routes on the upstream routers. What must the administrator ensure is configured on the
NetScaler system for this environment?
A.Static Routes
B.Link Load Balancing
C.Route Health Injection
D.Front-end Health Check
Answer:C

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NO.20 Which event would trigger a failover in a high availability pair?
A.The primary appliance reboots.
B.A forced synchronization event fails.
C.A monitored interface fails on the secondary node.
D.The default gateway does not return a heartbeat packet from the primary node.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 1Y0-118
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix WinFrame 1.8 Administration)
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40 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 The default client window properties for an application set are set within Program Neighborhood by:
A.Selecting the Farm menu option, choosing properties then clicking the change button within the
Windows Size section.
B.Selecting the Settings menu option, choosing preferences then selecting the
appropriate properties.
C.Selecting the Settings on the Tools menu option, choosing settings, then change the settings under
Windows Size.
D.Selecting the Default Option tab from the farm's Properties option, then change the settings under
Window Size.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the logon process?
A.A default policy is loaded prior to the user profile being loaded.
B.A private home directory is created of one has not been created for the user.
C.When a user logs on, the user's profile is loaded first and then the system policy is downloaded.
D.When a user logs on, the user's system policy is downloaded first followed by the user's profile.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the recommended minimum free disk space required to install WinFrame?
A.100 MB
B.150 MB
C.300 MB
D.350 MB
Answer: C

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NO.1 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

CheckPoint exam dumps   156-210 test answers   156-210 test questions

NO.2 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

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NO.5 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210 test   156-210

NO.6 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 dumps   156-210 test answers

NO.7 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

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NO.8 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

CheckPoint pdf   156-210 certification   156-210

NO.10 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.12 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   156-210 certification   156-210

NO.15 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

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NO.16 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.19 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

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NO.20 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

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NO.21 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

CheckPoint original questions   156-210   156-210 pdf

NO.22 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

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NO.23 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

CheckPoint exam   156-210   156-210

NO.24 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.26 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 certification

NO.27 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 test questions   156-210   156-210

NO.28 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint questions   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.29 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

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NO.30 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

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NO.1 docId%253Demr_na-c030467044%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.be
gCacheTok=com.vignett
e.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(4thbulleted point)
3. Which configuration option is required to enable Send to Home Directory?
A. Enable sent to email SMTP authentication
B. Enable front panel user authentication
C. Administrator password EWS authentication
D. SNMPv3 key authentication
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where is the Quick Setup Wizard located?
A. In the HP Address Book Manager
B. In the user PC device manager
C. In the HP MFP Embedded Web Server
D. In the HP OXP deployment tool
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is one reason that HP flow MFPs can scan up to twice as fast as other models?
A. They have single-pass dual-head scanners.
B. The paper handling engine turns twice as fast.
C. The document scanner uses page wide array technology.
D. Itincludes ultrasonic pick detection
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which field is required before you can configure the HP DSS Save to Network Folder OCR
option?
A. SNMP OID location
B. SMTP location
C. Destination folder location
D. LDAP attribute location
Answer: D

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kb/docDisplay/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDispla
y=docDisplayResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kb
DocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c004331243%257CdocLocale%253D&javax
.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

NO.5 What is one way to improve MFP email security?
A. Require the MFP user to type something in the subject field.
B. Encrypt it using SMTP SSL protocol
C. Configure the MFP file system password
D. Configure the MFP Admin password
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDispla
y/?sp4ts.oid=4184772&spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay&spf_p.prp_kbDocDisplay=wsrpnavigationalState%

NO.6 What is Windows authentication?
A. A proprietary port on HP Jetdirect cards
B. A programming language for web development
C. A printer control language
D. A way of identifying a user before access is granted
Answer: D

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