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Exam Code: C2150-195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
104 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which steps are required to see hidden offenses in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 (QRadar)?
A. Contact the QRadar administrator to select Hidden Offenses and then choose the Show option
from
the Action menu.
B. From the Offenses page, navigate to All Offenses and open the Search menu. Select Edit Search
and
in the Search Parameters section, uncheckthe box Exclude Hidden Offenses.
C. From the Offenses page, navigate to the Offenses by Category, and click on Show Inactive
Categories
to display all hidden offenses. Click Hide Inactive Categories to hide them again.
D. Hidden Offenses are no longer associated with Offenses so a custom report and a search should
be
created that uses a search parameter where Associated with Offense equals False. To create a
custom
report, navigate to Reports and from the Actions menu select Create.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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NO.4 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.9 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.11 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 How can a report be set up with restricted user access?
A. Click Reports > Restrict Users
B. Click on Manage Groups and add the user to the Restricted Reports group
C. Select the appropriate users on the Report Editing wizard to access the reports
D. Click Admin > Users, edit each user, and create lists of report filters users are allowed to see
Answer: C

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NO.13 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.14 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.15 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2180-660
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Sales Mastery Test v1)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
23 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 Which statement is true?
A. Worklight Console is where services connectivity may be configured for the mobile application.
B. Worklight Console allows for the creation of a user experience based on open source libraries and
HTML5.
C. Worklight Console is not connected to Worklight Server or ID
D. Worklight Console allows for push notifications, version control and direct updates.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application.
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team.
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers.
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal employees.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer creating mobile applications combining native and standard web technologies will
use:
A. IBM Worklight Studio (The product's IDE).
B. Their own Mac machine using Xcode
C. Hybrid applications using Objective-C
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2040-911
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
119 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 The XYZ company has a custom portlet that provides access to data from the company
mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs a batchThe XYZ company has a custom portlet
that provides access to data from the company? mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs
a batch process to update the data. During the batch process, the portlet cannot access the data.
Which one of the following options allows you to hide the portlet during the batch processing
times?
A. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy, then use the Page Layout editor to
assign the policy to the portlet.
B. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy and to assign the policy to the portlet.
C. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule, then use the Page Layout editor
to assign the rule to the portlet.
D. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule and to assign the rule to the
portlet.
Answer: C

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.2 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality in
terms of portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the
drag-anddrop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading ibmCSA.js
and calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which variables are defined by the defineObjects tag when used on a JSP page included within
the render method?
A. portletRequest, portletResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences,
portletPreferencesValues
B. renderRequest, renderResponse, renderConfig, renderSession, renderPreferences
C. renderRequest, renderResponse, portletConfig, portletSession, portletSessionScope,
portletPreferences, portletPreferencesValues
D. request, response, portletConfig, portletSession, portletPreferences
Answer: C

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.4 Robert needs to support a language that is read from left-to-right. Which tag would he use?
A. <portal-fmt:bidi/>
B. <portal-fmt:answer/>
C. <portal-fmt:textParam/>
D. <portal-fmt:identification/>
Answer: A

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NO.5 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new WSRP 2.0
feature is enabled in WebSphere Portal V8.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without
wiring the producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.6 Client-side tracing and logging has been enabled for all components in the namespace
com.ibm.mashups.enabler. Where are the log statements written to?
A. The log file trace.log located by default under wp_profile_root/logs
B. The JavaScript console of the browser
C. The log file SystemOut.log located by default under wp_profile_root/logs
D. The debug popup window displayed by the browser
Answer: B

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NO.7 Bill is developing Ajax portlet, In the serveResource() method first he is setting "AdminName"
request attribute and then forwarding control to .jsp for generating markup, How can he print the
"AdminName" attribute inside JSP ?
A. <%= request.getAttribute("AdminName") %>
B. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=renderRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
C. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=resourceRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
D. <portlet:defineObjects/>
<%=portletRequest.getAttribute("AdminName")%>
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with each
other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to develop
a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following options is not a valid controller model interface?
A. com.ibm.portal.content.ContentModelController
B. com.ibm.portal.content.LayoutModelController
C. com.ibm.portal.content.NavigationModelController
D. com.ibm.portal.portlet.PortletModelController
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2090-463
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM InfoSphere Guardium)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
130 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is a disadvantage of using S-TAP terminate action in the policy (and related functionality)
over S-GATE terminate?
A. There is a need to install the S-TAP agent on the database server and as a result it's harder to
deploy.
B. Additionally licensed feature needs to be installed and as a result there is additional cost
associated with this functionality.
C. The decision to terminate is done by S-TAP and as a result it has significant negative impact on
database server performance.
D. The violation activity will start bringing results from the database before the connection is
terminated and as a result data leakage is possible.
Answer: D

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NO.3 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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NO.4 The policy has an extrusion rule with action of 'Log Extrusion Counter' when a credit card
number
is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:
Query 'select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);' returns a total of 120
records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for
SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.7 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which method stops a non-GIM installed Windows S-TAP?
A. Invoking the "stop winstap" command.
B. Stopping the GUARDIUM_STAP service.
C. Ending Guardium S-TAP process through Task Manager.
D. Removing S-TAP from startup programs and rebooting server.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C4090-959
Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Sales V3 (C4090-959))
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120 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 A mainframe customer who utilizes 3490 tape is interested in reducing their need for tape and
would like to compare offerings from IBM and Oracle.
Which competitive product from Oracle should the specialist gather information on?
A. VSM
B. VSP
C. VPLEX
D. Bus-Tech
Answer: A

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NO.2 A sales specialist is discussing FO SAN with a customer, who says that it is not the right
solution
for the company’s needs. The customer has another solution in mind but has forgotten the exact
name of it, saying only that it has something to do with the LAN.
Which term is the customer most likely trying to articulate?
A. SAS
B. WAN
C. SATA
D. SCSI
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one clear advantage of IBM’s TS3500 Tape Library over Oracle’s SL-8500 Library?
A. FC0E connectivity
B. Higher number of robots
C. Modularity of storage units
D. Capability for handling mixed media
Answer: C

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6. A customer has a number of non-IBM storage arrays, which are capable of provisioning using
only
traditional RAID volumes. Over-allocation of storage is an issue on some arrays and not on others.
In order to balance storage use across the arrays, the customer wishes to virtualize the
environment.
Which advantage would IBM SAN Volume Controller provide over EMC VPLEX?
A. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
B. SAN Volume Controller can provide Real-time Compression to reduce capacity if the array
supports compression.
C. SAN Volume Controller can provide block-level deduplication to reduce capacity regardless of
array capability.
D. SAN Volume Controller can provide thin provisioned volumes to reduce capacity if the array
supports thin provisioning.
Answer: A

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7. A customer tells the sales specialist that the cost for high performance storage is too
expensive,
especially for data that is infrequently accessed.
Which technology allows them to assign types of data to different types of storage media in order
to reduce costs?
A. Data archival
B. Storage tiering
C. Thin provisioning
D. Storage virtualization
Answer: B

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8. A company wants additional storage for their database system and has been looking at HP
competitive disk proposals as a solution. When discussing IBM’s solutions with the company’s
010, the sales specialist learns that the company is directly attaching the HP disk and is buying
fewer, larger capacity drives.
Based on this information, which financial justification is this customer using?
A. Price/performance
B. Return on investment
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Total cost of acquisition
Answer: D

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9. A sales specialist discusses system acquisition requirements with a company’s OFO, who
states,
“our final evaluation will be based on hard dollars, but l still want to see what kind of value I’m
getting with the solution we choose.”
How is this customer performing the purchasing analysis?
A. TOA
B. TCO
C. NPV
D. ROI
Answer: D

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10. The PRIMARY purpose of the SAN Volume Controller is to provide which function?
A. Increased performance
B. Storage virtualization
C. Merging multiple LANs and SANs into one
D. Replication within a single storage array (homogeneous)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is looking for a small VTL that comes standard with deduplication as well as with
atleast4 TB of usable capacity which can grow to 20 TB.
Which IBM solution should be proposed to this customer?
A. TS7610
B. TS7680
C. T37650
D. TS7650G
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer with storage arrays from a number of vendors is looking at EMC and IBM storage
management tools. What should the sales specialist discuss with this customer?
A. EMC Unisphere manages IBM and EMC storage arrays
B. EMC can deploy a single solution to manage HDS and EMC
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can only manage the IBM storage arrays
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center can manage SMI-S compliant storage from a single
management console
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2150-662
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2)
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65 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 With Tivoli Federated Identity Manager, which of the following customer scenarios is to be
addressed?
A. The provisioning of identities to more than one domain or company.
B. Strict management of privileged users' identities to absolutely ensure there is no unauthorized
sharing of their identities.
C. Cross-domain single sign-on, whether the requester is an external user or an internal employee.
D. Strong authentication requirements for any configuration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business Key features include: Provide a base for the federation of
user identities. For standardized cross-domain authentication (federation), Tivoli Access Manager
for e-business customers can upgrade to Tivoli Federated Identity Manager - a modular access
control solution for cross-domain single sign-on.
Reference: IBM Tivoli Identity and Access Manager V1.0 and IBM Tivoli Unified Single Sign-On V1.0

NO.2 Which of the following is a key benefit & feature of data protection add-on?
A. Out-of-the-box compliance templates to detect credit card numbers, social security numbers,
among other sensitive data.
B. Continuous compliance to detect loss of credit card numbers, social security numbers, among
other sensitive data.
C. Patch Management to reduce the risk of data loss due to open vulnerabilities.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
* IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on The optional IBM Endpoint
Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on can be deployed and managed through the
IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager infrastructure. The module also helps improve data protection
capabilities while helping to control operational costs. IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection
Data Protection Add-on offers a robust data loss prevention and device control solution that
integrates into the anti-virus and anti-malware capabilities provided by the Core Protection solution
and can:
/ Secure data (sensitive or not) on devices that leave the business premises / Enforce security
policies such that users can access sensitive data for their jobs, but not misuse or lose that data /
Comply with the growing number of data privacy laws that affect the industry or company
Reference: IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on
6. Once IBM Security Virtual Server Protection (VSP) for VMware is deployed, is there still need
for other security solutions in the virtualized servers?
A. Yes there is because VSP cannot monitor host-based events (e.g. file integrity).
B. Yes there is because VSP does not monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
C. No there is not because VSP does monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
D. No there is not because VSP offers several layers of security.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following best describes QRadar Network Anomaly Detection (QNAD)?
A. QNAD is a stand-alone appliance that allows the identification of anomalies on the network.
B. QNAD feeds information about the network traffic to Site Protector.
C. QNAD is an optimized version of QRadar which complements SiteProtector to optimize network
protection.
D. QNAD identifies anomalies out of the information it imports from SiteProtector.
Answer: C

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Reference: PCTY 2012, Threat landscape and Security Intelligence v. Michael Andersson
URL:
http://www.slideshare.net/IBMDK/pcty-2012-threat-landscape-and-security-intelligence-vmichael-a
ndersson (slide 38)

NO.4 Which of the following actions can be taken with Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Device
Manager?
A. Power Management.
B. Patch distribution.
C. Disable iCloud sync.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices *Enable PW Policies *Enable Device Encryption *Force
encrypted backup *(C) Disable Sync *Corporate Access, email access, and App access contingent on
Policy Compliance! *Wipe if lost / stolen
* Wipe corporate data if employee leaves company (selective wipe)

NO.5 You are in a competitive user management/identity management/ user provisioning sale, and
the decision seems to hinge on who has the superior role management capabilities. How do you
handle this?
A. Expand the discussion to include access management and pull TAMeb into the sale.
B. Expand the discussion to include enterprise audit management and compliance and pull TSIEM
into the sale.
C. Bring Tivoli Provisioning Role Manager into the picture.
D. Tout TIM's significant role management capabilities and emphasize the fact that TIM comes with
Role and Policy Modeling in the package, whereas competitors charge extra for it.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Note:
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 helps you simplify and reduce cost of
administration:
/ Role modeling and mining helps facilitate the quick building of an effective role
and access structure from a business centric approach.
*Tivoli Identity Manager also provides:
A dynamic policy management engine that automates user provisioning and aids
in compliance efforts.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 is an automated and policy-based solution
that manages user access across IT environments.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager, also known as TIM, is an Identity Management System product from
IBM.
TIM provides centralized identity lifecycle management. It can automatically create, manage, and
delete user access to various system resources such as files, servers, applications, and more
based on job roles or requests.

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Exam Code: C2040-440
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals)
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125 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-01

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NO.1 What special considerations exist for logging out users authenticated by an external security
manager
(ESM)?
A.whether and how to expire the ESM's cookies
B.what role mappings to assign the default login portlet
C.how to clear the authorization context in the ESM's session
D.how to bypass the trust association interceptor during the logout
Answer: A

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NO.2 Virtual Member Manager (VMM) is configured to leverage an LDAP server's membership
attribute.The
LDAP server's membership attribute includes direct groups only. Access to IBM WebSphere Portal
resources has been assigned based on nested group membership. What configuration options
should be
changed or verified?
A.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "all".
B.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "nested".
C.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Enable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
D.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Disable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator creates a page and denies access to anonymous users. The friendly URL for
this page
is /wps/myportal/page1. J2EE authentication is enabled. Which default authentication level could
be
associated with this page such that users who selected "Remember me on this computer" when
logging in
previously will not be prompted for credentials when requesting /wps/myportal/page1?
A.Identified
B.Standard
C.Authorized
D.Authenticated
Answer: A

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5. What is one thing to check when troubleshooting friendly URLs?
A.If a web content viewer is not configured to broadcast links, links rendered by the viewer will
affect the
friendly URL for web content.
B.Support for friendly URLs for web content is only enabled when either of the configuration
properties
friendly.enabled or
friendly.pathinfo.enabled has a value of true in the portal Configuration Service.
C.It does not matter if the target page does not contain a web content viewer that is configured to
receive
links. The content item specified in the
friendly URL for web content will be displayed either way.
D.The portal page specified in the friendly URL for web content must contain a content mapping to
an
existing web content site area.If there is no
content mapping on the page, any web content viewers on the page display a warning message
about the
missing page context.
Answer: D

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NO.4 IBM WebSphere Portal supports which three of the following portlet specifications? (Choose
three.)
A.IBM Portlet API
B.Generic Portlet 1.0
C.Portlet 2.0 (JSR 286)
D.Portlet 1.0 (JSR 168)
E.IBM Web Content Manager Portlet 1.0
F.IBM Web Experience Factory specification 1.5
Answer: A,C,D

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