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Exam Code: HAAD-RN
Exam Name: HAAD Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses
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NO.1 Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would
indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer: D

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NO.2 A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer: C

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NO.3 A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer: C

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NO.4 A newborn infant is assessed using the Apgar assessment tool and scores 6. The infant has a
heart rate of 95, slow and irregular respiratory effort, and some flexion of extremities. The infant is
pink, but has a weak cry. The nurse should know that this Apgar score along with the additional
symptoms indicates the neonate is:
A. Functioning normally
B. Needing immediate life-sustaining measures
C. Needing special assistance
D. Needing to be warmed
Answer: C

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NO.5 A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse shoulD.
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer: D

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NO.6 A patient presents to the emergency department with diminished and thready pulses,
hypotension and an increased pulse rate. The patient reports weight loss, lethargy, and decreased
urine output. The lab work reveals increased urine specific gravity. The nurse should suspect:
A. Renal failure
B. Sepsis
C. Pneumonia
D. Dehydration
Answer: D

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NO.7 A patient admitted to the hospital in hypertensive crisis is ordered to receive hydralazine
(Apresoline) 20mg IV stat for blood pressure greater than 190/100 mmHg. The best response of the
nurse to this order is to:
A. Give the dose immediately and once
B. Give medication if patient's blood pressure is > 190/100 mmHg
C. Call the physician because the order is not clear
D. Administer the dose and repeat as necessary
Answer: A

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NO.8 A patient is to receive 2.5mg of morphine sulfate. The ampoule contains l000mcg/mL. How
much morphine should the nurse administer?
A. 0.25 ml
B. 1 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2.5 ml
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CTIL
Exam Name: Certified Software Tester - Intermediate Level (CSTIL)
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NO.1 Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage
Answer: B

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NO.2 Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the main purpose of use case testing?
A. To identify defects in process flows related to typical use of the system.
B. To identify defects in the connections between components.
C. To identify defects in the system related to extreme scenarios.
D. To identify defects in the system related to the use of unapproved programming practices.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Answer (B) relates to integration testing; answer (C) could relate to boundary value analysis or
performance testing, but use cases exercise typical process flows rather than extreme examples;
answer (D) relates to static analysis.

NO.4 A washing machine has three temperature bands for different kinds of fabrics: fragile fabrics
are washed at temperatures between 15 and 30 degrees Celsius; normal fabrics are washed at
temperatures between 31 and 60 degrees Celsius; heavily soiled and tough fabrics are washed at
temperatures between 61 and 100 degrees Celsius.
Which of the following contains only values that are in different equivalence partitions?
A. 15, 30, 60
B. 20, 35, 60
C. 25, 45, 75
D. 12, 35, 55
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Answer (A) includes two values from the lower partition, answer (B) contains two values from the
second partition, answer (D) contains one value that is invalid (out of range).

NO.5 Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A and C
E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit
A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Faults found by users are due to..?
A. Poor quality software
B. Poor software and poor testing
C. Bad luck
D. Insufficient time for testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 What do static analysis tools analyze?
A. Design
B. Test cases
C. Requirements
D. Program code
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CEH-001
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH)
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NO.1 Jason works in the sales and marketing department for a very large advertising agency
located in Atlanta. Jason is working on a very important marketing campaign for his company's
largest client. Before the project could be completed and implemented, a competing advertising
company comes out with the exact same marketing materials and advertising, thus rendering all the
work done for Jason's client unusable. Jason is questioned about this and says he has no idea how
all the material ended up in the hands of a competitor.
Without any proof, Jason's company cannot do anything except move on. After working on another
high profile client for about a month, all the marketing and sales material again ends up in the
hands of another competitor and is released to the public before Jason's company can finish the
project. Once again, Jason says that he had nothing to do with it and does not know how this could
have happened. Jason is given leave with pay until they can figure out what is going on.
Jason's supervisor decides to go through his email and finds a number of emails that were sent to
the competitors that ended up with the marketing material. The only items in the emails were
attached jpg files, but nothing else. Jason's supervisor opens the picture files, but cannot find
anything out of the ordinary with them.
What technique has Jason most likely used?
A. Stealth Rootkit Technique
B. ADS Streams Technique
C. Snow Hiding Technique
D. Image Steganography Technique
Answer: D

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NO.2 To see how some of the hosts on your network react, Winston sends out SYN packets to an IP
range. A number of IPs respond with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established he
sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. Winston has done this to see how his intrusion
detection system will log the traffic. What type of scan is Winston attempting here?
A. Winston is attempting to find live hosts on your company's network by using an XMAS scan.
B. He is utilizing a SYN scan to find live hosts that are listening on your network.
C. This type of scan he is using is called a NULL scan.
D. He is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on your network.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You visit a website to retrieve the listing of a company's staff members. But you can not find it
on the website. You know the listing was certainly present one year before. How can you retrieve
information from the outdated website?
A. Through Google searching cached files
B. Through Archive.org
C. Download the website and crawl it
D. Visit customers' and prtners' websites
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Archive.org mirrors websites and categorizes them by date and month depending on the crawl time.
Archive.org dates back to 1996, Google is incorrect because the cache is only as recent as the latest
crawl, the cache is over-written on each subsequent crawl. Download the website is incorrect
becausethat's the same as what you see online. Visiting customer partners websites is just bogus.
The answer is then Firmly, C, archive.org

NO.4 Information gathered from social networking websites such as Facebook, Twitter and
LinkedIn can be used to launch which of the following types of attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Smurf attack
B. Social engineering attack
C. SQL injection attack
D. Phishing attack
E. Fraggle attack
F. Distributed denial of service attack
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Rebecca is a security analyst and knows of a local root exploit that has the ability to enable
local users to use available exploits to gain root privileges. This vulnerability exploits a condition in
the Linux kernel within the execve() system call. There is no known workaround that exists for this
vulnerability. What is the correct action to be taken by Rebecca in this situation as a
recommendation to management?
A. Rebecca should make a recommendation to disable the () system call
B. Rebecca should make a recommendation to upgrade the Linux kernel promptly
C. Rebecca should make a recommendation to set all child-process to sleep within the execve()
D. Rebecca should make a recommendation to hire more system administrators to monitor all child
processes to ensure that each child process can't elevate privilege
Answer: B

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NO.6 Assuring two systems that are using IPSec to protect traffic over the internet, what type of
general attack could compromise the data?
A. Spoof Attack
B. Smurf Attack
C. Man inthe Middle Attack
D. Trojan Horse Attack
E. Back Orifice Attack
Answer: D,E

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Explanation:
To compromise the data, the attack would need to be executed before the encryption takes place at
either end of the tunnel. Trojan Horse and Back Orifice attacks both allow for potential data
manipulation on host computers. In both cases, the data would be compromised either before
encryption or after decryption, so IPsec is not preventing the attack.

NO.7 A digital signature is simply a message that is encrypted with the public key instead of the
private key.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the proper response for a NULL scan if the port is closed?
A. SYN
B. ACK
C. FIN
D. PSH
E. RST
F. No response
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Closed ports respond to a NULL scan with a reset.

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Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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NO.1 The competitive factor that may lead to industry overcapacity is
A. A favorable interest rate charged by suppliers of capital.
B. A short lead time for capacity expansion.
C. The existence of first mover advantages.
D. Integration of competitors.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
First mover advantages may be significant. Thus, short lead times for ordering equipment, lower
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expand.

NO.2 Which of the following is not one of the advantages of self-managed teams?
A. Motivation is improved because decision making is decentralized.
B. Improved processes of production if the teams are supported properly.
C. Managerial acceptance by tradition-oriented managers.
D. Improved communication because all members understand the team's activities better.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Managerial resistance is often the primary obstacle of self-managed teams. Organizational change is
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status.

NO.3 Many factors cause firms to overbuild, resulting in industry overcapacity. The structural
factor that may lead to overbuilding is:
A. A reduction in supplier prices.
B. A shallow learning curve.
C. An absence of exit barriers.
D. The presence of a strong market leader.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Suppliers of capital, equipment, materials, etc., face their own competitive pressures. Thus, lower
supplier prices, government subsidies, favorable interest rates, and similar incentives may promote
expansion by customer industries.

NO.4 Which of the following is false with regard to email policies?
A. Employees may use informal writing because email is often informal in nature.
B. Employees should understand that the organization has a legal right to monitor the employees'
use of the email system.
C. Filters should be used to protect against spam.
D. Emails should be concisely written.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The principles of good writing still apply to emails. Therefore, emails should be written like any
other formal communication within the organization.

NO.5 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.6 Rivalry among existing firms in an industry is more likely to be strong when:
A. The industry is in the rapid growth stage.
B. Investment intensity is low.
C. A few firms are dominant.
D. Capacity must be expanded in large increments.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The intensity of rivalry and the threat of entry may vary with the extent of capacity expansion
dictated by the need to achieve economics of scale. If it must be made in large increments to
achieve economics of scale, competition will be more intense. The need for large-scale expansion to
achieve production efficiency may result in an excess of industry capacity over demand. However, if
capacity may be expanded in small increments, industry capacity is less likely to be excessive, the
supply-demand balance is less likely to be upset, and price cutting is less likely to be necessary.

NO.7 Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard developed a situational leadership model with two
dimensions:task and relationship behaviors. In this model, the delegating leadership style is
appropriate when followers have:
A. Low maturity.
B. Low to moderate maturity.
C. Moderate to high maturity.
D. High maturity.
Answer: D

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The dimensions of the delegating leadership style are low task and low relationship. Consequently,
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because the maturity of followers is high. They are willing and able to do what is necessary.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
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NO.1 For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log
files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the
NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary
NameNode on host mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode -report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint
information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin -saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last
checkpoint value in fstime file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the
"Last Checkpoint" information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the "Last
Checkpoint" information
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have installed a cluster HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You have no
dfs.hosts entry(ies) in your hdfs-site.xml configuration file. You configure a new worker node by
setting fs.default.name in its configuration files to point to the NameNode on your cluster, and you
start the DataNode daemon on that worker node. What do you have to do on the cluster to allow
the worker node to join, and start sorting HDFS blocks?
A. Without creating a dfs.hosts file or making any entries, run the commands
hadoop.dfsadmin-refreshModes on the NameNode
B. Restart the NameNode
C. Creating a dfs.hosts file on the NameNode, add the worker Node's name to it, then issue the
command hadoop dfsadmin -refresh Nodes = on the Namenode
D. Nothing; the worker node will automatically join the cluster when NameNode daemon is started
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are planning a Hadoop cluster and considering implementing 10 Gigabit Ethernet as the
network fabric.
Which workloads benefit the most from faster network fabric?
A. When your workload generates a large amount of output data, significantly larger than the
amount of intermediate data
B. When your workload consumes a large amount of input data, relative to the entire capacity if
HDFS
C. When your workload consists of processor-intensive tasks
D. When your workload generates a large amount of intermediate data, on the order of the input
data itself
Answer: A

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NO.5 Choose three reasons why should you run the HDFS balancer periodically?
A. To ensure that there is capacity in HDFS for additional data
B. To ensure that all blocks in the cluster are 128MB in size
C. To help HDFS deliver consistent performance under heavy loads
D. To ensure that there is consistent disk utilization across the DataNodes
E. To improve data locality MapReduce
Answer: D

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NO.6 You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of
map output records. Your child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How
would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0
D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as
close to equals) the number of map output records.
Answer: D

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NO.7 On a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN, a MapReduce job is given a directory of
10 plain text files as its input directory. Each file is made up of 3 HDFS blocks. How many Mappers
will run?
A. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the ResourceManager
B. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the developer
C. 30
D. 3
E. 10
F. We cannot say; the number of mappers is determined by the ApplicationMaster
Answer: E

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NO.8 Your Hadoop cluster is configuring with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run a NodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a functional cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Map tasks only
D. Yes. The daemon will receive Reducer tasks only
Answer: A

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buying product using in-app billing technique?
A. The running application from is stopped.
B. The running application gets destroyed.
C. The running application is paused.
D. Running application is not affected, as the buying is done through the Google play's live service. It
just requires the key that the user has generated against the application.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which one of these methods makes the ADT emulator a testing device? Note that "request" is
an instance of class AdRequest.
A. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_DEVICE);
B. request.addDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
C. request.addTestDevice(AdRequest.TEST_EMULATOR);
D. request.makeTestRequest();
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT true about the products sold from inside the application?
A. Products sold inside an application are digital items that are offered for sale by the developer.
B. They are non-refundable
C. Digital items cannot be sold using Google Play's IAB service.
D. Products are programmatically delivered by the developer and not Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following happens after an in-app purchase is completed?
A. User is provided with a list of similar products in Google Play.
B. The application is closed and a sale confirmation message is sent to user.
C. The application runs from the same place it was left.
D. User is asked to provide an application review on Google Play.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are required to publish your Android application on Google Play?
(Choose two)
A. A Google publisher account.
B. A Google Wallet merchant account.
C. The APK file of your application.
D. An adMob account.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 What is ad mediation?
A. The name of an advertisement platform.
B. A technique to create an advertisement using the application's description.
C. A technique that sends ad requests to multiple ad networks.
D. A method to choose the best ad placement size in an application.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Upon completion of a purchase using Google Play in-app billing, the result is returned to your
activity.
Which method you should override to handle the returned result?
A. onActivityResult.
B. onResultReturned.
C. onPurchaseFinished.
D. OnIabPurchaseFinished
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following type of accounts is required to upload paid applications on Google Play?
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Answer: A

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NO.1 During an Activity life-cycle, what is the first callback method invoked by the system?
A. onStop()
B. onStart()
C. onCreate()
D. onRestore()
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which file specifies the minimum required Android SDK version your application supports?
A. main.xml
B. R.java
C. strings.xml
D. AndroidManifest.xml
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a valid Android resource file name?
A. mylayout.xml
B. myLayout.xml
C. my_layout.xml
D. mylayout1.xml
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the name of the class used by Intent to store additional information?
A. Extra
B. Parcelable
C. Bundle
D. DataStore
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the parent class of all Activity widgets?
A. ViewGroup
B. Layout
C. View
D. Widget
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is not an Android component (i.e. a point from which the system can
enter your application)?
A. Service
B. Activity
C. Layout
D. Content Provider
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does the following line of code achieve?
Intent intent = new Intent(FirstActivity.this, SecondActivity.class );
A. Creates an hidden Intent
B. Creates an implicit Intent
C. Create an explicit Intent
D. Create an explicit Intent
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a valid usage for Intents?
A. Activate and Activity
B. Activate a Service
C. Activate a Broadcast receiver
D. Activate a SQLite DB Connection.
Answer: D

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