2013年7月31日星期三

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Exam Code: 070-486

Exam Name: Microsoft (Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications)

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NO.1 You are creating a new authentication system that uses an HTTP header value. The existing
authentication system must continue to operate normally. You need to implement the custom
authentication.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Create an HttpHandler to check for a valid HTTP header value in the ProcessRequest method.
B. Create an HttpModule and check for a valid HTTP header value in the AuthenticateRequest event.
C. Create a class derived from ActionResult and check for a valid HTTP header value in the
ExecuteResult method. Change all actions to return this new class.
D. Create a class derived from AuthorizeAttribute and check for a valid HTTP header value in the
AuthorizeCore method. Change usages of the existing AuthorizeAttribute to use the new class.
Answer: DB

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NO.2 You need to add a method to the Product Controller class to meet the exception handling
requirements for logging.
Which code segment should you use?
A. protected override void OnExceptionExceptionContext filterContext {if!
System.Diagnostics.Debugger.IsLogging {Utility.WriteLogfilterContext.Exception;
filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; this.View"Error".ExecuteResultthis.ControllerContext ;}}
B. protected override void OnExceptionExceptionContext filterContext
{Utility.WriteLogfilterContext.Exception; if filterContext.HttpContext.IsCustomErrorEnabled
{filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; this.View"Error".ExecuteResultthis.ControllerContext ;}}
C. protected override void OnExceptionExceptionContext filterContext
{Utility.WriteLogfilterContext.Exception; if filterContext.HttpContext.IsDebuggingEnabled
{filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; this.View"Error".ExecuteResultthis.ControllerContext ;}}
D. protected override void OnExceptionExceptionContext filterContext
{Utility.WriteLogfilterContext.Exception; if System.Diagnostics.Debugger.IsAttached
{filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; this.View"Error".ExecuteResultthis.ControllerContext ;}}
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are designing an HTML5 website. You need to design the interface to make the content of
the web page viewable in all types of browsersincluding voice recognition softwarescreen
readersand reading pens.
What should you do.? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use HTML5 semantic markup elements to enhance the pages.
B. Annotate HTML5 content elements with Accessible Rich Internet Application ARIA attributes.
C. Ensure that HTML5 content elements have valid and descriptive names.
D. Use Resource Description Framework RDF to describe content elements throughout the entire
page.
E. Convert HTML5 forms to XForms.
Answer: BA

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NO.4 Customers download videos by using HTTP clients that support various content encodings. You
need to configure caching on the DownloadVideo action to maximize performance.
Which attribute should you add?
A. [OutputCacheVaryByCustom = "gzip",VaryByContentEncoding = "all",Location =
OutputCacheLocation.Any,]
B. [OutputCacheVaryByHeader = "Cache-Control",Location =
OutputCacheLocation.ServerAndClient,CacheProfile = "gzip"]
C. [OutputCacheLocation = OutputCacheLocation.AnyVaryByParam =
"videoId",VaryByContentEncoding
= "gzip;q=1.0compress; q=0.5*;q=0"]
D. [OutputCacheLocation = OutputCacheLocation.DownstreamVaryByParam = "gzip",VaryByCustom
=
"browser"]
E. [OutputCacheLocation = OutputCacheLocation.DownstreamOrder=1,VaryByContentEncoding =
"gzip;q=1.0compress; q=0.5*;q=0"]
Answer: C

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NO.5 You need to extend the edit functionality of RunLogController.
Which code segment should you use?
A. [HttpGet][ActionName"EditLog"][ValidateAntiForgeryToken]public ActionResult EditLogLogModel
log{...}
B. [HttpPost][ActionName"EditLog"][RequireHttps]public ActionResult EditLogValidatedLogModel
log{...}
C. [HttpPost][ActionName"EditLog"][ValidateAntiForgeryToken]public ActionResult
EditLogValidatedLogModel log{...}
D. [HttpPost][ActionName"EditLog"]public ActionResult EditLogValidatedLogModel log{...}
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that displays stock market information. The
stock market information updates frequently and must be displayed in real-time. You need to
eliminate unnecessary header dataminimize latencyand transmit data over a full-duplex connection.
What should you do?
A. Implement long-running HTTP requests.
B. Configure polling from the browser.
C. Instantiate a MessageChannel object on the client.
D. Implement WebSockets protocol on the client and the server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. You need to authenticate clients by using an
ASP.NET membership database.
Which authentication method should you implement?
A. Windows
B. Forms
C. Basic
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that will be deployed on a web farm.
Passwords must be stored in the web.config file and must not be readable or in a format that is
easily decodable. You need to encrypt the passwords that are stored in the web.config file.
Which command-line tool should you use?
A. EdmGen.exe
B. ngen.exe
C. Aspnet_regiis.exe
D. Aspnet_merge.exe
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application must allow users to enter
JavaScript in a feedback text box only. You need to disable request validation. What should you do?
A. Apply and set the ValidateInput attribute on the text box to FALSE.
B. Apply and set the CausesClientSideValidation attribute on the text box to FALSE.
C. Use the HttpRequest.Unvalidated property to read the unvalidated form value.
D. Use the HttpRequest.Form property to read the unvalidated form value.
Answer: C

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NO.10 When users attempt to retrieve a product from the product pagea run-time exception occurs
if the product does not exist. You need to route the exception to the CustomException.aspx page.
Which method should you add to MvcApplication?
A. public static void RegisterGlobalFiltersGlobalFilterCollection filters {filters.Addnew
HandleErrorAttribute{ExceptionType = typeofIndexOutOfBoundsException,View =
"CustomException",};}
B. public static void RegisterGlobalFiltersGlobalFilterCollection filters {filters.Addnew
HandleErrorAttribute{ExceptionType = typeofNullReferenceException,View = "CustomException",};}
C. public static void RegisterGlobalFiltersGlobalFilterCollection filters {filters.Addnew
HandleErrorAttribute{ExceptionType = typeofIndexOutOfBoundsException,Handler =
"CustomException",};}
D. public static void RegisterGlobalFiltersGlobalFilterCollection filters {filters.Addnew
HandleErrorAttribute{ExceptionType = typeofNullReferenceException,Handler =
"CustomException",};}
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 070-412

Exam Name: Microsoft (Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services)

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NO.1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices.
An
answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is
independent of
the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that
question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains
two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012. Server1
and
Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a
failover
cluster named Cluster1. You add two additional nodes to Cluster1. You need to ensure that Cluster1
stops
running if three nodes fail. What should you configure?
A. the possible owner
B. a file server for general use
C. live migration
D. the Handling priority
E. the preferred owner
F. the cluster quorum settings
G. the host priority
H. the Scale-Out File Server
I. the failover settings
J. Affinity
Single
K. Affinity
None
L. quick migration
Answer: F

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NO.2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains
two
servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the DHCP Server
server role installed. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server2 has an IP address of
192.168.10.50. Server1 has a scope named Scope1 for the 192.168.10.0/24 network. You plan to
deploy
20 virtual machines on Server2 that will be connected to the external network. The MAC addresses
for the
virtual machines will begin with 00-15-5D-83-03. You need to configure Server1 to offer the virtual
machines IP addresses from 192.168.10.200 to 192.168.10.219. Physical computers on the network
must
be offered IP addresses outside this range. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum
amount
of administrative effort. What should you do from the DHCP console?
A. Delete Scope1 and create two new scopes.
B. Configure Allow filters and Deny filters.
C. Create a policy.
D. Create reservations.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have a datacenter that contains six servers. Each server has the Hyper-V server role
installed and
runs Windows Server 2012. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
Host4 and Host5 are part of a cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You
need to move VM1 to another Hyper-V host. The solution must minimize the downtime of VM1. To
which
server and by which method should you move VM1?
A. to Host6 by using a storage migration
B. to Host2 by using a live migration
C. to Host3 by using a storage migration
D. to Host1 by using a quick migration
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. A previous
administrator
implemented a Proof of Concept installation of Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD
RMS).
After the proof of concept was complete, the Active Directory Rights Management Services server
role
was removed. You attempt to deploy AD RMS. During the configuration of AD RMS, you receive an
error
message indicating that an existing AD RMS Service Connection Point (SCP) was found. You need to
remove the existing AD RMS SCP . Which tool should you use?
A. ADSI Edit
B. Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Sites and Services
E. Services
F. Authorization Manager
G. TPM Management
H. Certification Authority
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices.
An
answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is
independent of
the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that
question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains
two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012. Server1
and
Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a
failover
cluster named Cluster1. You add two additional nodes in Cluster1. You have a folder named Folder1
on
Server1 that hosts application data. Folder1 is a folder target in a Distributed File System (DFS)
namespace. You need to provide highly available access to Folder1. The solution must support DFS
Replication to Folder1. What should you configure?
A. the cluster quorum settings
B. Affinity
Single
C. live migration
D. the preferred owner
E. quick migration
F. the Scale-Out File Server
G. Affinity
None
H. the possible owner
I. the Handling priority
J. the host priority
K. a file server for general use
L. the failover settings
Answer: K

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Exam Code: 70-487

Exam Name: Microsoft (Developing Windows Azure and Web Services)

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NO.1 You need to recommend a data access technology to the contractor to retrieve data from the
new data
source. Which data access technology should you recommend?
A. ADO.NET DataSets
B. LINQ to XML
C. ADO.NET Entity Framework
D. WCF Data Services
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are developing a WCF service. A new service instance must be created for each client
session. You
need to choose an instancing mode. Which instance mode should you use?
A. Single
B. Multiple
C. PerSession
D. PerRequest
E. PerCall
Answer: C

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NO.3 The GetExternalOrder() method in the ExternalQueueService service is throwing a runtime
error. The
method must query the database for a record that matches the orderNum parameter passed to the
method. You need to modify the queryString string to retrieve the record. With which code segment
should
you replace line EQ64
A. string queryString = @"SELECT * FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueuesWHERE OrderNum
=
@orderNum";
B. string queryString = @"SELECT q.OrderNum, q.VendorId, q.FilePath, q.OrderValueFROM
ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueues AS q WHERE q.OrderNum = @orderNum";
C. string queryString = @"SELECT VALUE q FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueues AS
qWHERE q.OrderNum = @orderNum";
D. string queryString = @"SELECT VALUE FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueuesWHERE
OrderNum = @orderNum";
Answer: C

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NO.4 The GetExternalOrder() method in the ExternalQueueService service is throwing a runtime
error. The
method must query the database for a record that matches the orderNum parameter passed to the
method. You need to modify the queryString string to retrieve the record. With which code segment
should
you replace line EQ64
A. string queryString = @"SELECT * FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueuesWHERE OrderNum
=
@orderNum";
B. string queryString = @"SELECT q.OrderNum, q.VendorId, q.FilePath, q.OrderValueFROM
ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueues AS q WHERE q.OrderNum = @orderNum";
C. string queryString = @"SELECT VALUE q FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueues AS
qWHERE q.OrderNum = @orderNum";
D. string queryString = @"SELECT VALUE FROM ExternalOrdersEntities.InboundQueuesWHERE
OrderNum = @orderNum";
Answer: C

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NO.5 The GetVendors() action in the ProcessedOrderController controller is querying the database
each time
it is run. The GetVendors() action must query the database only if the cache is null. You need to add
code
to the action at line PC33 to cache the data. Which code segment can you use? (Each correct
answer
presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. cache.Set(new CacheItem("vendorKey", vendors), GetVendorPolicy());
B. cache.Add("vendors", vendors, new CacheItemPolicy());
C. cache.Add(new CacheItem("vendorKey", vendors) , GetVendorPolicy());
D. cache.AddOrGetExisting("vendorKey", context, new CacheItemPolicy());
Answer: AC

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2013年7月30日星期二

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NO.1 Which three about JMS are true? (Choose three.)
A.JMS is the acronym for Java Mail Service.
B.JMS supports an event-oriented approach to message reception.
C.JMS supports both synchronous and asynchronous message passing.
D.JMS does NOT depend on MOM (Messaging-Oriented Middleware) products.
E.JMS provides a common way for Java programs to access an enterprise messaging system's
messages.
Correct:B C E

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NO.2 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE includes the MIDP API.
B.J2EE application developers need J2SE.
C.J2EE includes servlet APIs and EJB APIs.
D.J2EE applications depend on web servers.
E.J2EE runs on consumer and embedded devices.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Which is true about RMI?
A.RMI is used to create thin web clients.
B.RMI allows objects to be sent from one computer to another.
C.RMI is the Java API used for executing queries on a database.
D.RMI is used to develop applications for wireless mobile devices.
E.RMI is the transport protocol used by web servers and browsers.
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which two are valid representations of operations in UML? (Choose two.)
A.- op(p : P) : P
B.+ int op(int param)
C.* op(param : int) : int
D.+ op(param : int) : int
E.public void op(int param)
Correct:A D

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NO.5 Which statement about threading in Java is false?
A.A thread is a special type of method.
B.The synchronized keyword is used to lock objects.
C.A thread whose execution has completed is no longer runnable.
D.Threads waiting to be executed are generally chosen for execution based on priority.
Correct:A

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NO.6 What is the purpose of JNDI?
A.to parse XML documents
B.to access native code from a Java application
C.to register Java Web Start applications with a web server
D.to access various directory services using a single interface
Correct:D

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.7 What is the definition of the acronym SQL?
A.Special Query Language
B.System Query Language
C.Special Queue Language
D.System Queue Language
E.Structured Query Language
F.Structured Queue Language
Correct:E

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. Which is an abstract class?
A.Cat
B.Dog
C.Rabbit
D.Mouse
Correct:D

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.9 A Java programmer wants to develop a small application to run on mobile phones. Which Java
edition (or editions) are required to develop the application?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:E

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. Which class correctly implements the interface Flyer?
A.Lark
B.Airplane
C.Penguin
D.Helicopter
Correct:B

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. Which is the class name?
A.eat
B.age
C.Dog
D.bark
E.name
Correct:C

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.12 Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.SQL commands cannot be contained in servlets.
B.SQL is a web services technology used to parse large XML files.
C.SQL technology is used to access JMS queues from within EJB technology.
D.SQL commands can be written in applications that use NO Java technologies.
E.SQL allows you to modify multiple rows in a table with a single command.
Correct:D E

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.13 A Java programmer wants to develop a browser-based multitier application for a large bank.
Which Java edition (or editions) should be used to develop this system?
A.only J2SE
B.only J2EE
C.only J2ME
D.J2SE and J2EE
E.J2SE and J2ME
F.J2EE and J2ME
Correct:D

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.14 Which is true?
A.All JDBC drivers are pure Java.
B.The JDBC API is included in J2SE.
C.The JDBC API is an extension of the ODBC API.
D.JDBC is used to connect to MOM (Message-Oriented Middleware) products.
Correct:B

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.15 Which two are characteristics of an RDBMS? (Choose two.)
A.J2EE provides a cross-platform RDBMS.
B.An RDBMS represents data using two-dimensional tables.
C.An RDBMS represents data using three-dimensional tables.
D.Business-tier applications use session beans to represent rows in an RDBMS.
E.Java technologies provide capabilities for connecting a legacy RDBMS to a web application.
Correct:B E

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.16 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.The diagram shows a composition relation.
B.The diagram does NOT show a composition relation.
C.A Foo instance has access to the Bar with which it is associated.
D.A Bar instance has access to the Foo with which it is associated.
E.It cannot be determined from the diagram whether instances of Foo and Bar will have access to each
other.
Correct:B D

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is valid for a Zippy to have no associated Dippy.
B.It is valid for a Dippy to have no associated Zippy.
C.Every Zippy must be associated with exactly one Dippy.
D.Every Dippy must be associated with exactly one Zippy.
E.Every Dippy must be associated with at least one Zippy.
F.It is valid for a Zippy to be associated with more than one Dippy.
Correct:A E

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.18 Which statement is true?
A.The JMS API is located in the java.jms package.
B.JMS provides interfaces to naming and directory services.
C.JMS enables an application to provide flexible, asynchronous data exchange.
D.JMS enables an application to provide tightly coupled, distributed communication.
Correct:C

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.19 Which is true?
A.A J2SE program can create no more than 10 concurrent threads.
B.The Java threading model provides equal processor time to all threads.
C.All threads created by a given Java program share the same invocation stack.
D.Threading allows GUI applications to perform lengthy calculations and respond to user events at the
same time.
Correct:D

SUN   310-019 pdf   310-019 pdf   310-019 test questions   310-019

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A.Every Flurb contains a reference to itself.
B.Every Flurb is associated with exactly one Flurb.
C.There can only be one instance of the Flurb class.
D.There must always be an even number of Flurb instances.
E.A Flurb can be associated with itself, but it also could be associated with a different Flurb.
Correct:B E

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NO.1 Which statement describes the effect of having the following .forward file in the home
directory of
the user cindy on the SCO OpenServer system fiji.xyz.org?
A. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be forwarded to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
B. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be forwarded to alison@guam.xyz.org
C. mail addressed to alison@guam.xyz.org will be copied to cindy@fiji.xyz.org
D. mail addressed to cindy@figi.xyz.org will be copied to alison@guam.xyz.org
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which program or protocol CANNOT be used to allow Windows users to execute SCO
OpenServer applications?
A. TermLite
B. XVision
C. VisionFS
D. TermVision
Answer: C

SCO answers real questions   090-554   090-554

NO.3 How many octets are reserved for the HOST portion of a Class A IP address (with no subnets)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which file is used to configure outbound Morning Star PPP connections?
A. /usr/lib/mstppp/Autostart
B. /etc/hosts
C. /usr/lib/mstppp/ppphosts
D. /usr/lib/ppp/hosts
Answer: A

SCO   090-554   090-554   090-554

NO.5 A Class B network has been subnetted so that it uses an 8-bit subnet address and an 8-bit host
address. Which of these netmask values is a correct choice for this network?
A. 0.0.255.255
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 255.255.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your company has a Class C network address. Because of geographical considerations, you
want
to set up seven (7) subnets. What is the minimum number of subnet bits that will allow you to
have these seven (7) subnets?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

SCO   090-554 demo   090-554   090-554 pdf

NO.7 Which method CANNOT display a GUI interface for configuring the Netscape web servers on
the
SCO OpenServer system called webserver?
A. Enter the SCO OpenServer /usr/internet/ns_httpd/start-admin command
B. Select Netscape Server Admin from SCOadmin
C. From the system webserver, run Netscape Navigator, and go to the URL http://webserver:620
D. From an authorized system on your network, run a web browser, and go to the URL
http://webserver:620
Answer: A

SCO   090-554 answers real questions   090-554 questions   090-554 questions

NO.8 Which command, if run on an SCO OpenServer system with an IP address of 192.168.11.11,
would send packets onto the network?
A. ping 127.0.0.1
B. ping localhost
C. ping 192.168.11.11
D. None of these commands would send packets onto the network.
Answer: D

SCO exam prep   090-554 answers real questions   090-554

NO.9 Which statement regarding Ethernet addresses is true?
A. The address is a unique 48-bit value.
B. The address value is configured in the /etc/hosts file.
C. A host discovers its own Ethernet address with the RARP protocol.
D. A host's Ethernet address does not change when it gets a new network interface card.
Answer: A

SCO practice test   090-554 test questions   090-554   090-554   090-554 practice test

NO.10 Which statement about the POP3 protocol is TRUE?
A. The POP3 daemon is started by default by inetd.
B. POP3 allows you to send and receive SCO OpenServer e-mail from a Windows client.
C. With POP3, mail messages are always removed from the server after they are read.
D. POP3 allows you to save e-mail to folders on the SCO OpenServer server.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12: Inventory and Order Management Fundamentals)

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NO.1 You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to
meet the client's needs.
You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential
Smoothing after one year.
Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to
re-evaluate the forecasting methoD.
What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?
A. Focus Forecasting
B. Exponential Smoothing
C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 certification   1Z0-225 study guide

NO.2 Identify the correct sequence of steps in the purchase order period close business flow.
A. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing
perioD.
> 4. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 5. Run the
Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7. Create a manual
journal entry
for write-offs.
B. 1. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 2. Process period-end accruals. > 3. Close the purchasing
perioD.
> 4. Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 5. Write off accrued transactions as necessary. > 6.
Create a
manual journal entry for write-offs. > 7. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory
accounting perioD.
C. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Run the
Accrual
Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 3. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 4. Create a manual
journal entry
for write-offs. > 5. Review the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 6. Process period-end accruals. > 7. Close
the purchasing perioD.
D. 1. Process remaining inventory transactions and close the inventory accounting perioD. > 2. Review
the Uninvoiced Receipts report. > 3. Process period-end accruals. > 4. Close the purchasing perioD. > 5.
Run the Accrual Rebuild Reconciliation report. > 6. Write-off accrued transactions as necessary. > 7.
Create a manual journal entry for write-offs.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-225 exam   1Z0-225 demo   1Z0-225 demo

NO.3 Which data is received by Oracle Bill of Materials from Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply only
B. item information only
C. on-hand quantity only
D. item information and units of measure
E. units of measure and on-hand quantity
Answer: D

Oracle exam prep   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.4 ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is
on-hand inventory for 200 different motors.
For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max can automatically create _____.
A. an expense account
B. an encumbrance account
C. an invoice price variance account
D. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual account
E. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-225 pdf   1Z0-225 braindump   1Z0-225 exam dumps   1Z0-225

NO.5 Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific subinventories. You
caution him not to include too many customer orders when he runs the report.
What option do you suggest that he include?
A. Supply Cutoff Date
B. Demand Cutoff Date
C. Supply and Demand Cutoff Dates
D. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-225 certification   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.6 Identify four mandatory implementation actions for approved supplier lists and sourcing rules.
(Choose four.)
A. Register suppliers.
B. Define buyer security.
C. Set the enterprise namE.
D. Define system profile options.
E. Assign Sourcing responsibilities.
F. Define purchasing Document Styles.
G. Set up attribute groups and requirements sections.
Answer: ACDE

Oracle   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.7 While implementing a procurement solution for BAC Corp., you noted the following business
requirements:
a) Do not require purchase order approval if the unit price is increased or decreased by less than 15
percent.
b) Add comments in the Approve Purchase Order Reminder notification.
c) Change the number of days for the Approve Requisition Reminder notification.
Which two workflows need to be modified to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. PO Change Order Workflow
B. PO Requisition Approval Workflow
C. Purchase Order Approval Workflow
D. Create Purchase Order or Releases Workflow
E. PO Send Notifications for Purchasing Documents Workflow
Answer: BD

Oracle   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 pdf

NO.8 ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the
Min-Max Planning Report is deployeD.
What will be the result?
A. Requisitions will be preapproveD.
B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf lifE.
C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fencE.
E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item's Economic Order Quantity
(EOQ).
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 certification training   1Z0-225

NO.9 Your client wants the ability to perform the following tasks:
1.Allow requestors to self-approve purchasing requisitions if their approval levels are appropriatE.
2)Allow an approver to modify a purchasing requisition if necessary.
3)Allow requestors to forward their purchasing requisitions to different people if necessary.
4)Withdraw the ability to change the default "Forward From" on the purchasing requisition when
approving the samE.
5)Allow the purchasing requisition to follow the entire approval hierarchy until it reaches a person who can
approve the document regardless of authority.
6)Allow everyone to view each others' purchasing requisitions.
Which seven actions would satisfy the client's requirements? (Choose seven.)
A. Set the Access Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Full.
B. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PubliC.
C. Set the Security Level for the Purchasing Requisition document type to PrivatE.
D. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Direct.
E. Select the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition Document TypE.
F. Set the Forward Method for the Purchasing Requisition document type to Hierarchy.
G. Deselect the Owner Can Approve box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
H. Select the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
I. Deselect the Approver Can Modify check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
J. Select the Owner Can Forward-To check box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
K. Deselect the Can Change the Forward-From box for the Purchasing Requisition document typE.
Answer: ABEFHJK

Oracle answers real questions   1Z0-225 certification   1Z0-225 original questions   1Z0-225 pdf   1Z0-225 exam dumps

NO.10 Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is
checkeD.
An internal requisition has been created and approveD.
What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E

Oracle pdf   1Z0-225 braindump   1Z0-225 certification

NO.11 Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose threE. )
A. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproveD.
B. Replenishment and pick wave move orders are preapproveD.
C. Requisition and pick release orders are preapproved and require inspection.
D. If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approveD.
E. If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout
Period to 0 and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.
Answer: BDE

Oracle exam prep   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.12 What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?
A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tags
B. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requests
C. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent program
D. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the
Cycle Count Entries Open Interface
Answer: C

Oracle certification   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 certification training

NO.13 Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the
item. The
buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received from
nonlocal sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH

Oracle exam prep   1Z0-225 certification   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 questions

NO.14 You define a UOM Class for VolumE.
Which grouping represents the Volume class?
A. Liter, gallon, milliliter, pint
B. Kilometer, meter, mile, yard
C. Liter, milliliter, kilometer, meter
D. Liter, gallon, milliliter, centimeter
E. Kilometer, meter, cubic yard, cubic meter
F. Kilometer, meter, centimeter, cubic centimeter
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-225 demo   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.15 What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?
A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.
B. (alpha) is always greater than onE.
C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.
D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.
E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous perioD.
Answer: D

Oracle pdf   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 braindump   1Z0-225 answers real questions

NO.16 Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is driven
below zero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from driving
inventory levels below zero.
Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= No.
B. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= Yes.
C. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= No.
D. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush
= Yes.
Answer: B

Oracle exam   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225 original questions

NO.17 Which are the three mandatory fields when defining a supplier bank header? (Choose threE. )
A. Bank
B. Bank branch
C. Bank contact
D. Bank account number
E. Bank operating account
Answer: ABD

Oracle   1Z0-225   1Z0-225   1Z0-225

NO.18 Min-max planning can be used _____.
A. only at the subinventory level
B. in place of MRP/MPS planning
C. in Exponential Smoothing Forecast calculations
D. in Economic Order Quantity(EOQ) calculations
E. in Material Requirement Planning/Master Production Schedule (MRP/MPS) calculations
Answer: B

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NO.19 During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a
supplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.
When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D

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NO.20 An item has its Lot Control attribute set to Full Control.
The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material
status control. This status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.
The subinventory where the item's lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.
How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?
A. The transaction will be accepteD.
B. An error message will be generateD.
C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same
subinventory.
D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the
user.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two are supply sources for Supplier and Production inventory replenishment? (Choose two.)
A. Discrete job
B. Intransit order
C. External sales order
D. Replenishment move order
E. Internal purchase requisition
F. External purchase requisition
Answer: AF

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NO.22 ABC company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:
1. Purchase order receipt
2. Miscellaneous receipt
3. Account alias receipt
The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which
setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?
A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No
D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes
E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No
G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes
Answer: C

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NO.23 The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They
currently use min-max planninG. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed
on the items the client wants to plan?
A. Safety Stock Quantity and Forecast
B. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost
C. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, and Order Cost
D. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Maximum Order Quantity
E. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity
Answer: C

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NO.24 Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose threE. )
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash
account are separatE.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on
the balance sheet.
Answer: BCE

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NO.25 When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the
following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration:
[number].
Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header - Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options - PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the Default Tab - Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) List of Values, in the Quote Header - Warning Delay field
Answer: C

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NO.26 Select three statements that are true about the receiving process. (Choose threE. )
A. You can correct receiving transaction errors.
B. You can record returns to suppliers and customers.
C. You can record receipt of unordered items, research receipt, and match the delivery to a purchase
order.
D. You can use express receipt to distribute a given quantity of an item from a single supplier across
multiple shipments and distributions.
E. You can define receiving tolerances and rules at the organization, supplier, item and order level, with
the highest level overriding the next levels (highest level being the organization).
Answer: ABC

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NO.27 You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planninG. To
enable that functionality, you would need to define the ____.
A. subinventory supply source type at the pull level
B. Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zero
C. Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zero
D. subinventory supply source type at the subinventory or item level
Answer: D

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NO.28 XYZ is a metal fabrication company. It wants to classify all metals and plastics into two major groups.
There are many subgroups in metals and plastics. All the subgroups are linked to their major group.
This group classification is extensively used in all the reports in the organization.
Which Oracle functionality can meet the above requirement?
A. Catalogs
B. Categories
C. Catalog and Categories
D. Category Set and Categories
E. Group key flexfield enabled in the reports
F. Group descriptive flexfield enabled in the reports
Answer: D

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NO.29 Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Which two pieces of information does Oracle Inventory receive from the Order Management application?
(Choose two.)
A. UOM information
B. shipping information
C. on-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. reservations information
Answer: BE

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NO.30 Which three statements regarding inventory forecasting are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Focus forecasting can only be generated from historical datA.
B. Focus forecasting is typically used to produce single period forecasts.
C. Statistical forecasting can be generated from either historical data or master schedule entries.
D. Statistical forecasting enables you to apply exponentially weighted trend and seasonality factors to
predict demanD.
E. Statistical forecasting enables you to simulate various methods of calculating demand so that you can
select the best forecasting model.
Answer: ABD

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NO.1 What are the three benefits of Oracle Fusion Applications using a Lightweight Directory Access
Protocol (LDAP) system?
A. enforces the principle of least privilege
B. segregates duties to be more rigorously enforced
C. allows principles of assured revocation to be more rigorously enforced
D. extends the database concept of a grant to applications
E. uniquely identifies a single person
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 You want to display a new field of sensitive data to display salary information. Which security
policy controls access to the field displayed by the component?
A. Function Security Policy
B. ADF Security expression language
C. Data Security Polity
D. Oracle Platform Security Policy
Answer: C

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NO.3 As a line manager you have 10 direct reports. You have certain work scheduled that needs to
be
completed in the coming week. You have identified three of your reports to complete the task and
you would like to check for their availability in the coming week.
Which report will give you a snapshot of their availability?
A. My Organization
B. Leave Availability
C. Worker Availability
D. Predicted Worker Performance and Attrition
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are working on Implementing Fusion Human Capital Management. Some of the work
structures and need to be configured manually. Enterprise, Business Units, Legal Entities, Reference
Sets, and Legislative data Group will be part of this manual setup.
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed for this setup.
A. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
B. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Business Units > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
C. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group > Define Legal
Entities > Define reference Sets.
D. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Business Units >
Define Legislative Data Group
Answer: B

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NO.5 Select the four products offered as part of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family under the
business process category of Workforce Development.
A. Profile Management
B. Performance & Goal Management
C. Time and Labor
D. Talent Review
E. Network at Work
F. Learning Management
Answer: A,B,D,F

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NO.6 Identify the four business subprocess offered under the workforce Deployment category of
the Oracle Fusion HCM family.
A. Manage Absence
B. Manage Global Workforce
C. Manage Worker Performance
D. Manage Social Networking
E. Manage Workforce Profiles
F. Manage Workforce Life Cycle
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.7 Identify the two applicable model profiles for workforce structures.
A. Jobs
B. Individual worker
C. Position
D. Department
E. Location
F. Business unit
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What Oracle Fusion Middleware features maximize the security of Fusion Applications?
A. Improved productivity, manageability, and responsibility
B. Improved extensibility, responsibility, and functionality
C. Improved productivity, adaptability, and manageability
D. Improved sustainability, adaptability, and extensibility
E. Improved adaptability, extensibility, and functionality
Answer: B

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