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NO.1 Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Schedule of business products to time and cost
B. Availability of skills to deliver services to new and existing customers
C. Implementing new business practices across organizational boundaries
D. Legislation that affects core business activities
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an 'opportunity'?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a threat?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which describes the 'reduce a threat' risk response option?
A. Perform an action to minimise the impact and/or probability of the risk
B. Remove the cause of the threat
C. Obtain an insurance policy to cover the impact should the risk occur
D. Partake in a pain/gain contract with another party for the specified risk
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is a method for obtaining senior management commitment and support for
understanding and managing risk?
A. Developing management of risk guidance handbooks and training materials
B. Ensuring the risk management function has a direct reporting line to a senior executive
C. Escalating risks from the programme, project or operational perspectives to higher levels as
required
D. Making formal assessments of management of risk implementation in areas of concern
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is a primary step within the 'M_o_R process'?
A. Manage
B. Assess
C. Embed
D. Control
Answer: B

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7. Which is a goal of the 'assess - evaluate' step?
A. Evaluate the impact, probability and how soon risks might occur
B. Calculate the net effect of risks facing the activity
C. Assess and evaluate the effectiveness of procedures for managing risks
D. Evaluate the net cost of planned risk responses
Answer: B

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8. Which is a responsibility of the M_o_R manager role?
A. Define risk tolerance thresholds
B. Prepares risk workshop materials
C. Defines how much risk should be taken
D. Ensures a risk review process is in operation
Answer: D

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9. Which is a responsibility of the team?
A. Ensure adequate resources are available to implement the risk management strategy
B. Run risk management workshops
C. Develop the risk improvement plan
D. Identify and escalate risks
Answer: D

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10. What is represented graphically on a 'summary risk profile'?
A. Proximity of the identified risks
B. Information found in the risk register
C. Summary of the actions required to respond to the risks in the activity
D. Risk capacity for the activity
Answer: B

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11. Which is a use of a risk management maturity model?
A. Enabling organizations to benchmark their current risk management capability
B. Checking the state of current risk management
C. Identifying areas where application of risk management can be improved
D. Carrying out an enterprise wide assessment
Answer: A

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12. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The primary outcome of the [ ? ]
principle is that organizations learn from their mistakes.
A. achieves measurable value
B. provides clear guidance
C. creates a supportive culture
D. facilitates continual improvement
Answer: D

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which action is performed by router R4?
A. pop
B. swap
C. PHP
D. push
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are correct about link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Packets are routed based upon the shortest path to the destination.
B. Paths are chosen based upon the number of hops to the destination.
C. The exchange of advertisement is triggered by a change in the network.
D. In a multipoint network, all routers exchange routing tables directly with all the routers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What does TCP use to set up a connection?
A. Two-way handshake
B. Sliding window
C. Three-way handshake
D. Four-way handshake
Answer: C

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NO.4 Computer A with IP address 192.168.1.1 / 24 wants to send a packet to computer B with IP
address 192.168.2.1 / 24. Which statement is correct?
A. Computer A will send an ARP request to computer B
B. Computer A will encode the destination MAC address of computer B
C. Computer A will use its default gateway.
D. Computer A will send a network discovery request to computer B
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements are correct regarding QoS in an IP network using DiffServ?(Choose two.)
A. High priority traffic can be dropped by any router in the network.
B. Packets belonging to the same QoS class always traverse the same path regardless of IGP
topology change.
C. Routers reserve required bandwidth before they start forwarding packets for a given class.
D. QoS procedures applied to a given traffic class are the same for all routers within the DiffServ
domain.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An edge router forwards a mixture of VoIP and IPTV traffic over the same port.
Which two QoS scheduling algorithms would you use to assure good VoIP call quality when the port
is congested? (Choose two.)
A. PQ
B. WFQ
C. PWFQ
D. WRED
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which three techniques allow for the co-existence of IPv4 and IPv6 networks?
A. tunneling
B. anycasting
C. translation
D. encoding
E. dual-stacking
Answer: B

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NO.8 Why must the distance between two IP networks be less than 16 routers when using RIP as a
routing protocol?
A. RIP is a classful routing protocol.
B. RIP converges too slowly.
C. RIP uses a metric of 16 as infinite.
D. RIP uses 16 seconds as a hold timer.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT an assumption made when analyzing course materials and
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A. All important learner characteristics are available to the instructor in advance.
B. Different learners learn at different rates.
C. Different learners learn in different ways.
D. Learners come to a training situation knowing different things.
Answer: A

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6. The most important reason an instructor must establish and maintain credibility is:
A. Students are less likely to make personal attacks on the instructor.
B. Students rail not be open to learning course objectives if they do not fully accept the instructor
credibility.
C. Students need a role model.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The following three elements make up Professional Credibility:
A. Content Credibility Personal Credibility
B. Social Credibility
C. Technical Credibility
D. Field Experience Credibility
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 As an instructor it is very important that you demonstrate excellent personal sell-esteem.
Select two ways of demonstrating this in class:(Select two)
A. Purchase the students pizza on the first day of class.
B. Allow for positive differences of opinion within the classroom.
C. Ask overhead questions.
D. Invite and be open to having students share experiences that may be different from the
instructors.
E. Ask directed questions.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 During the ENSA program, you notice that one of the students in the class does not have the
prerequisites for the course.
Which of these actions is an appropriate method for you to do?
A. Modify the pace of the course so that the student can accommodate and learn the course
objectives effectively.
B. Ignore such students and continue the class.
C. Ask the student to cancel his admission and leave the classroom immediately.
D. Tell the student that you can assist the student, but without the basic knowledge requested for
the course it would be difficult for him/her to successfully complete the program.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are delivering a lecture to a new group of learners. At different points in the lecture
students have problems understanding the new concepts. Select two techniques below that you can
use to help them overcome their confusion:
A. Give additional examples about the concept.
B. Make minor re-sequencing of activities to meet learner's needs-
C. Restate the information you just gave about the concept.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test
that an application's security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of
a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Answer: D

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NO.4 After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device's user
reports being unable to connect to the network:
PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37
DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB
Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting?
A. WPA2-PSK requires a supplicant on the mobile device.
B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device.
C. TCP/IP Port filtering has been implemented on the SOHO router.
D. IP address filtering has disabled the device from connecting.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an application security coding problem?
A. Error and exception handling
B. Patch management
C. Application hardening
D. Application fuzzing
Answer: A

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NO.6 Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the
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A. HIDS
B. Firewall
C. NIPS
D. Spam filter
Answer: C

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NO.7 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the
following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Answer: A

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NO.8 Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about
the overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it
is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A

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NO.1 Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. personal, procedural, and legal.
C. operational, technical, and management.
D. mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server
from cross-site scripting attacks?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Flood Guard Protection
C. Web Application Firewall
D. URL Content Filter
Answer: C

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NO.3 The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on
their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST
response?
A. Recovery
B. Follow-up
C. Validation
D. Identification
E. Eradication
F. Containment
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?
A. MAC Filtering
B. WPA - LEAP
C. WPA - PEAP
D. Enabled SSID
Answer: A

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NO.5 A security administrator wants to perform routine tests on the network during working hours
when certain applications are being accessed by the most people. Which of the following would
allow the security administrator to test the lack of security controls for those applications with the
least impact to the system?
A. Penetration test
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Load testing
D. Port scanner
Answer: B

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NO.6 Joe, the system administrator, has been asked to calculate the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
for a $5,000 server, which often crashes. In the past year, the server has crashed 10 times, requiring
a system reboot to recover with only 10% loss of data or function. Which of the following is the ALE
of this server?
A. $500
B. $5,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following can a security administrator implement on mobile devices that will
help prevent unwanted people from viewing the data if the device is left unattended?
A. Screen lock
B. Voice encryption
C. GPS tracking
D. Device encryption
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect
reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C

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NO.1 Many companies have developed an asset/liability management approach that is founded
on understanding product liabilities. Mortgages meet the primary objective of
maintaining:
A. A tight asset/liability match
B. A well-diversified core of investments
C. A tight asset/liability match with a well-diversified core of investments.
D. Real estate lending by insurance companies
Answer: C

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NO.2 A
is an amount of money, loaned at interest for a specified term, secured
by real estate and by its improvements such as buildings and infrastructure. This form of
instrument itself varies by jurisdiction, but the debt is always evidenced by an
accompanying promissory note.
A. Mortgage Loan
B. Real estate lending
C. Conventional Commercial Loans
D. CMBS
Answer: A

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NO.3 Prepayment of a conventional mortgage loan, prior to its specified maturity, is
discouraged through the general market acceptance of significant prepayment penalties.
Often these penalties are calculated so that when prevailing market interest rates are:
A. Lower than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
B. Greater than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
C. Equal to the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest rate
differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
D. Lower than the rate of interest being paid to the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
Answer: A

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NO.4 These are securities whose underlying assets consist of commercial mortgage loans. The
commercial loans are pooled, which brings diversification and liquidity to the asset class.
What are these?
A. Conventional securities
B. CMBS
C. Subordinated securities
D. Securitization
Answer: B

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NO.5 There are many different sources of CMBS. Conduits and aggregate pools generally
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is large enough for an efficient execution. Government agencies such as the Federal
National Mortgage Association (FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corp.
(FHLMC) are important sources of:
A. Residential financing
B. B2B financing.
C. Commercial financing.
D. Mortgage loans
Answer: A

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NO.1 What are the types of content blocks available to view Events
on the Cascade Profiler dashboard?
(Select 2)
A. Security Events
B. Performance and Availability Events
C. Current Events
D. Unacknowledged Events
E. Public Events
F. Private Events
G. Per User Events
H. Per IP Address Events
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 What are some reports Cascade Profiler provides to benefit WAN management?
A. WAN Optimization Benefits reports, Breakdown of business versus non-business application reports,
QOS reports by interface and/or application.
B. WAN Optimization of all TCP protocols with more specific optimization of over 50 TCP Applications.
C. WAN reporting of TCP Protocols.
D. QOS shaping, User-based policies that will block not compliant traffic, WAN optimization reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface
Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User ¯s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.6 How does the Cascade Profiler determine the optimization levels achieved for WAN Optimization
reports?
A. Compare the amount of traffic crossing a LAN interface to the corresponding traffic crossing an
optimized WAN interface.
B. Compare updates received via SNMP from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
C. The Cascade Profiler cannot determine optimization levels.
D. Through manual entry of levels achieved.
E. Compare updates received via flows from Steelhead optimization devices with router devices.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the ways Cascade Profiler can graphically depict response times in the GUI?
A. In Overall Traffic Graphs
B. In Connection Graphs
C. In Dashboard Line Graphs
D. In Overall Traffic Graphs and in Connection Graphs
Answer: D

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NO.8 Configuring the Cascade appliance to use RADIUS for authentication/authorization involves which of
the following tasks (in no particular order): (Select 4)
A. User Name
B. Specify the IP address of the RADIUS server
C. Port number
D. Password
E. Authentication protocol
F. Shared secret of each RADIUS server
Answer: B,C,E,F

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