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Exam Code: HP2-H32
Exam Name: Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions Exam
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Exam Code: HP5-H05D
Exam Name: Delta-Selling HP Client Virtualization Solutions
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NO.1 What is the difference between server-based computing and virtual-desktop infrastructure?
A. Virtual desktop infrastructure is sharing one desktop computer with one or more thin clients,
while server based computing is sharing one or more desktop computers with one or more servers.
B. Virtual desktop infrastructure is a system where each desktop PC is rack mounted and managed
in one area while server-based computing enables management of local desktop computers via the
server.
C. Virtual desktop infrastructure hosts computer images for remote computing while server-based
computing is an environment where computing occurs directly on the server and the user interface
is accessed remotely.
D. Virtual desktop infrastructure and server-based computing are two different terms for the same
network environment.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:http://www.brianmadden.com/blogs/brianmadden/archive/ 2007 / 03 /14 /when-to-use-vdi
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NO.2 What is a common reason why HP loses thin client sales opportunities?
A. Failure to understand customer needs
B. Poorly managed evaluation process that fails to prove the concept
C. Fear of the competition
D. Competitor has the lead
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which feature differentiates HP t820 thin clients from HP t620 thin clients?
A. Intel Core i5-4570S processor
B. Built with the environment in mind
C. OS-dependent protocol
D. Enterprise-class 802.11 a/b/g/n Wi-Fi with dual internal antennas
Answer: A

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NO.4 What type of user is someone who needs a PC-like experience, heavy performance, and 3D
graphics for use in data intensive applications?
A. Knowledge worker
B. Task worker
C. Power and flexible user
D. Office worker
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which series of HP thin clients is only designated for use with PC over IP?
A. HP zero clients
B. HP ProLiant thin clients
C. HP flexible thin clients
D. HP smart zero clients
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.channelinsider.com/c/a/Reviews/Thin-Client-Technology-From-Teradici-Enha
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NO.6 Which operating system feature applies to HP mt41 Mobile Thin Clients?
A. Configuration dependent operating system
B. No on board operating system
C. Microsoft WES 7E operating system
D. Optional operating system
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-H31
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Workstations - Exam
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Exam Code: C2140-136
Exam Name: Rational Application Developer v7
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Exam Code: HP2-N46
Exam Name: Selling HP Automation and Cloud Management Software Solutions
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NO.1 Which HP CloudSystem Enterprise Starter Suite value best resonates with the persona involved
in Transforming Service Delivery?
A. upgrades a CloudSystem Enterprise system to a CloudSystem Matrix environment
B. helps you visualize, optimize, and plan performance in virtualized and cloud environments
C. provides a self-service portal in order to deliver services from multiple providers
D. enables comprehensive patching of physical and virtual farms
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the correct value proposition for the HP Software Database and Middleware
Automation solution?
A. monitors administrative tasks such as provisioning, compliance, patching, and release
management associated with databases and application servers
B. reduces downtime and mean time to repair (MTTR) through root-cause analysis that maintains
accuracy for databases and application servers
C. prevents unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
D. delivers industry-standard best practices to address challenges around compliance, middleware,
and database patching, and code release
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6274ENW.pdf(page 3, first para)

NO.3 Which Task Automation challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by HP Server
Automation Premium Edition? (Select two.)
A. How can I improve time-to-value in the provisioning of application development environments?
B. How can I pre-empt problems before they cause an outage?
C. How do I guarantee my service desk tickets are prioritized?
D. How can I distribute security updates (patches) in my environment in an agile and reliable
manner?
E. How can I better monitor security breaches?
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which specific challenge is faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
Cloud Service Automation solution?
A. inability to trace real user transactions across application tiers to speed resolution time
B. procurement by the line-of-business of external Public Cloud services that are not directly under
the control of corporate IT
C. no system to track storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
D. need to fix vulnerabilities on network devices using an integrated security alert service
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is true about the HP Server Automation Premium Edition solution?
A. provides automatic tracking of storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
B. consolidates and correlates server fault and performance events across the entire physical and
virtual IT infrastructure
C. integrates server monitoring and universal log management, further reducing the time to
troubleshoot tough-to-diagnose problems
D. offers a lower-cost solution that simplifies the setup and reduces the time needed to manage the
physical and virtual servers in a data center
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6486ENW.pdf(page 1, executive
summary, first para)

NO.6 You are in front of a customer, and the discussion centers around Process Orchestration. The
customer says that they do not have the budget to purchase more software.
What is the best way to respond to this objection?
A. Is there anyone else in the organization that is able to make that type of buying decision?
B. Can you afford to continue with existing inefficiencies and broken processes?
C. We can help you offset that cost by reducing head-count
D. We can reduce your OPEX by making your IT staff more efficient in managing routine day-to-day
tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which key customer persona is most likely involved in Automation and Cloud Management
buying decisions?
A. CIO
B. system administrator
C. CTO
D. CSO
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP Cloud Service Automation value best resonates with the persona involved in
Transforming Service Delivery?
A. offers a repeatable,scalable, automatable way to manage technical policy and reusable services
B. consolidates and correlates fault and performance events across the entire physical and virtual IT
infrastructure
C. provides an extensible, enterprise-grade, service lifecycle management system
D. automates tasks and processes in the data center using workflows that help IT teams execute
change with greater speed, quality, reliability, and consistency
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HH0-350
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED SPECIALIST -NAS ARCHITECT
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Exam Code: HH0-300
Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED EXPERT -REPLICATION SOLUTIONS ARCHITECT
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NO.1 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to continuously replicate a database's data
and log volumes.
Which two statements describe what will happen? (Choose two.)
A. A database checkpoint will be created upon failover.
B. At recovery time, the database will reconcile logs and transactions.
C. In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D. In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which tool is used to capture workload data in a VMware environment?
A. RIAT
B. SAR
C. glance+
D. RMF magic
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two ways to improve initial copy time for ShadowImageon a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Use SATA disks.
B. Distribute S-Vols across additional parity groups
C. Increase the copy pace.
D. Decrease the copy pace.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer is using Hitachi Universal Replicator (HUR) and does not have sufficient network
bandwidth. During a peak write workload, the customer overflows their HUR journals and
replication suspends in error.
What happens when the customer issues a resychronization?
A. HUR performs an initial copy.
B. HUR performs a differential copy.
C. HUR performs a no copy.
D. HUR performs an at-time split.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has experienced a disaster and has failed over to their Hitachi Universal Replicator
copies at the secondary site. They have acquired new servers and storage for their production
facility and they are ready to return operations to the production facility as quickly as possible.
Which two fallback procedures apply? (Choose two.)
A. Order devices in the HORCM file from the lowest change rate to the highest change rate.
B. Replication pairs can be suspended to allow changed tracks to be managed using the bitmap.
C. Perform the initial copy with the -nocopy option to allow operations to resume immediately.
D. Initial copy is required from the recovery site back to the production site.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 A customer is implementing TrueCopy between their primary and secondary data centers. Due
to budget constraints the RCU has larger, slower disk drives than the MCU.
What is the risk associated with the design?
A. Primary volumes may suspend
B. Journal utilization may increase
C. Host response time may increase
D. Back-end director utilization may increase
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer notices poor performance with the ShadowImageS-Vols that reside on an
externalized HUS 150. They have not noticed any problems with internal ShadowImageS-Vols.
Which system option mode (SOM) and setting should you verify?
A. Verily that SOM 459 is off.
B. VerilythatSOM459ison.
C. VeritythatSOM489ison.
D. Verily that SOM 489 is off.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two workload metrics are used to calculate replication bandwidth requirements?
(Choose two.)
A. disk latency
B. read/write ratio
C. host response time
D. total MB/sec throughput
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: EX0-003
Exam Name: Managing Successful Programmes Foundation
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NO.1 Which is evidenced by the Business Case?
A. Continuing affordability of the programme
B. Responsibility for managing the Business Change Team
C. Information about what will be subject to review
D. Risk responses for the initial programme risks
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why are programme governance baselines updated?
A. Reflect lessons learned, in Managing the Tranches
B. Adjust programme governance to align with project governance, in Delivering the Capability
C. Reflect lessons from earlier programmes, in Identifying a Programme
D. Prepare for benefit reviews, in Realizing the Benefits
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is a reason for the process Delivering the Capability?
A. Complete programme definition.
B. Ensure outputs can be integrated into operations
C. Reconcile programme objectives with project delivery
D. Confirm outcomes have been achieved
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the step in the Benefits Management Cycle that includes carrying out activities to
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A. Deliver benefits realization
B. Identify benefits
C. Develop the benefits management approach
D. Plan benefits realization
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which part of the scope of programme quality is MOST likely to be concerned with making
best use of skills and experience?
A. Standards management
B. People management
C. Process management
D. Communications management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is a feature of effective programme organization needed to deliver the programme's
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A. Transition management
B. Blueprint
C. Gated reviews
D. Management structures
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which is NOT an objective of the programme communications process?
A. Ensure expectations about what will be delivered remain realistic
B. Maintain high levels of awareness and commitment
C. Specify how stakeholders will be identified
D. Describe what future operations are likely to look like
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which is NOT a reason for Managing the Tranches?
A. Implement monitoring and control governance for the programme
B. Assess the programme regularly to check it is in line with the strategic direction of the
organization
C. Achieve stabilization of operational areas which have transitioned to the new state
D. Update programme governance baselines to reflect lessons learned
Answer: C

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NO.1 Agile planning happens at multiple levels including a daily plan, an sprint plan and a strategic
plan.
What term best describes the multi-level planning?
A. Planning Onion
B. Planning Poker
C. Sprint Planning
Answer: A

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NO.2 A team estimates a Story using the Planning Poker technique. The team decides to
allocate five Story points to the Story, because the Developers estimated two points and the Testers
estimated three points.
Which statement is true regarding this scenario?
A. Points are assigned by the Scrum Master, not by the team.
B. Points are assigned for the overall Story, not for parts of the Story.
C. Points are never estimated, but always determined beforehand.
D. The team forgets to ask the Product Owner about the estimate.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is time-boxing?
A. A period of intense activity within a particular release.
B. Setting an upper time limit and planning the activities within that limit.
C. Tight planning focused on reducing the time required for any activity.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The Product Owner is going on a three-week vacation. The team should be closing the current
Sprint and starting a new Sprint at the end of the first week of the Product Owner's vacation.
What is the best way to continue the Scrum rituals in this situation?
A. Each Scrum team should ideally have two Product Owners to provide cover.
B. The Product Owner should be requested to delay his vacation by a week.
C. The Scrum Master should take over and cover for the Product Owner.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is an information radiator?
A. A physical display for the team that gives information about the current status.
B. A tool that automatically sends relevant information to the Product Owner.
C. A status report or dashboard that is maintained by the Scrum Master.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Who is the owner of a Sprint Backlog Item during the Sprint Planning meeting?
A. The entire team owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
B. The Product Owner owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
C. The team member working on the item owns that item.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When is a Sprint complete?
A. When all of the Product Backlog items are completed.
B. When all the tasks in the Sprint Backlog are completed.
C. When the Sprint defined time box ends.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The team determines that it has over-committed itself for a Sprint.
Who should be present when reviewing and adjusting the Sprint work?
A. The team, the Scrum Master and the Product Owner. The Stakeholders should be consulted.
B. The team and the Scrum Master. The Product Owner should be consulted.
C. The team only. The Product Owner should be consulted.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which monitoring activity belongs to Business data management?
A. monitoring of the integrity of customer data
B. monitoring whether the acceptance test data are correct
C. monitoring the accuracy of reports provided by the IT service provider
Answer: A

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NO.2 What kind of commitment describes the situation where an IT provider takes on the
responsibility to realize a complete solution for the customer?
A. financial commitment
B. obligation to undertake efforts
C. delivery commitment
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which process produces an end user training for a new release of an application?
A. Transition
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which main activity occurs within all Management processes?
A. administrating
B. checking
C. operation
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which process is an implementation plan made?
A. Planning and resource management
B. Prepare transition
C. Design non-automated information systems
Answer: B

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NO.6 A marketing campaign has been planned by the sales and marketing department of the end
user organization. Sales and marketing expects that the number of customers in the customer
database will increase by 35%. Which process should act on this information?
A. Operational supplier management
B. Transition
C. Change management
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which responsibility belongs to the process Demand management?
A. determining the necessary capacity for change
B. periodic consultation of the end users
C. identification of information requirements within the business process
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which activity belongs to the process Specify information requirements?
A. defining the global impact of a suggested change to the information provisioning
B. defining the impact of the suggested IT solution on the end user organization
C. defining how the IT solution interacts with the non-automated processes
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NO.1 An organization with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain migrates to Office
365. You need to manage Office 365 from a domain-joined Windows Server 2012 Core server.
Which three components should you install? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Windows Azure Active Directory module for Windows PowerShell
B. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5
C. Microsoft Office 365 Integration Module for Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 4.0
E. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
F. Rights Management module for Windows PowerShell
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has Office 365 Enterprise E3
licenses for each of its 250 employees. The company does not allow email or Lync Online licenses to
be assigned to external contractors.
User1 is an external contractor who requires access to SharePoint and Office Web Apps only.
You need to add a license for User1's account.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct location or locations.
Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Answer:

NO.3 An organization plans to migrate to Office 365.
You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Lync 2013 Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Active Directory
Federation Services (AD FS) to provide single sign-on to cloud-based services. You enable
multi-factor authentication.
Users must NOT be required to use multi-factor authentication when they sign in from the
company's main office location. However, users must be required to verify their identity with a
password and token when they access resources from remote locations.
You need to configure the environment.
What should you do?
A. Disable AD FS multi-factor authentication.
B. Configure an IP blacklist for the main office location.
C. Disable the AD FS proxy.
D. Configure an IP whitelist for the main office location.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory
(AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All
users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.6 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Users report that they have received significantly more spam messages over the past
month than they normally receive.
You need to analyze trends for the email messages received over the past 60 days.
From the Office 365 admin center, what should you view?
A. The Mail protection reports
B. The Mailbox content search and hold report
C. Messages on the Message center page
D. The Office 365 Malware detections in sent mail report
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You configure new user accounts
for User1 and User2. User1 has an on-premises mailbox. User2 has an Office 365 mailbox.
Each user must be able to view the availability of the other user.
You need to ascertain whether users can share their free/busy information.
What should you use?
A. Transport Reliability IP Probe (TRIPP Tool)
B. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer Tool
C. Business Connectivity Services
D. Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management
Answer: B

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NO.8 Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services. You implement single sign-on (SSO) with
Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
B. On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
C. On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet
Register-AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
D. On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
E. Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor
Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
F. Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
Below is an ACL entry from a slapd.conf file. Fill in the access control level setting to prevent users
from retrieving passwords.
access to attrs=lmPassword,ntPassword by dn="cn=smbadmin,dc=samplenet" write by *
Answer: none

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NO.2 In the example below, what is the missing argument that is required to use secret as the
password to authenticate the replication push with a slave directory server?
replica uri=ldaps: //slave.example.com: 636
binddn="cn=Replicator,dc=example,dc=com"
bindmethod=simple ______________=secret
A. secure
B. master
C. credentials
D. password
Answer: C

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NO.3 It is found that changes made to an OpenLDAP directory are no longer being replicated to the
slave server at 192.168.0.3. Tests prove that the slave server is listening on the correct port and
changes are being recorded properly to the replication log file. In which file would you find the
replication errors?
A. replication.err
B. replication.rej
C. 192.168.0.3:389.rej
D. 192.168.0.3:389.err
Answer: C

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
In an OpenLDAP masters's slapd.conf configuration file, a replica configuration option is needed to
enable a slave OpenLDAP server to replicate. What value is required in the following setting:
bindmethod=____________ if using passwords for master/slave authentication? (Only specify the
missing value)
Answer: simple

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NO.5 Which of the following procedures will test the TLS configuration of an OpenLDAP server?
A. Run the ldapsearch command with the -ZZ option, while watching network traffic with a packet
analyzer.
B. Run the ldapsearch command with the -x option, while watching network traffic with a packet
analyzer.
C. Run the slapcat command, while watching network traffic with a packet analyzer.
D. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/ldap_auth.log file.
E. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/auth.log file.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following parameters is used in the database on a slave server to direct clients
that want to make changes to the OpenLDAP database to the master server?
A. updatedn
B. updateserver
C. updateref
D. updateuri
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does cachesize 1000000 represent in the slapd.conf file?
A. The number of entries to be cached.
B. The size of the cache in Bytes.
C. The size of the cache in Bits.
D. The minimum cache size in Bytes.
E. The maximum cache size in Bytes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following parameters can be used in the file DB_CONFIG? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. set_cachesize
B. set_cachepath
C. set_db_type
D. set_db_path
E. set_lg_max
Answer: A,E

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NO.1 What is a zone used for?
A. to bundle interfaces together for redundancy
B. to bundle interfaces sharing identical security requirements
C. to provide a tunneled connection across a network
D. to protect against spam attacks
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which security feature provides secure tunnels across a public network?
A. dynamic routing
B. Web filtering
C. IPsec
D. firewall filters
Answer: A

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NO.3 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. NVRAM
B. TFTP server
C. internal flash
D. PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the flow decision process, the system has found a route entry matching the packet
destination IP .
Which pair will identify the policy that is applied to this packet?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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7. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS is corrupted, from which location can an
image be loaded?
A. TFTP server
B. internal flash
C. PCMCIA card
D. Compact Flash Card
Answer: A

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8. In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than
the first in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A. The second packet causes an ARP query.
B. The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C. The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D. The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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9. By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. ROM
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP server
D. Internal Flash
E. PCMCIA Card
Answer: D

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10. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS on a NS-204 is corrupted, from which two
(2) alternate locations can an image be loaded?
A. ROM
B. TFTP server
C. Internal Flash
D. PCMCIA Card
E. Compact Flash Card
Answer: B,E

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11. Which operating system is used on a NetScreen device?
A. IOS
B. Junos
C. FreeBSD
D. ScreenOS
Answer: A

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12. A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone.
Both interfaces are addressed and active. The configured policy allows user traffic from the user
zone to the FTP server in the servers zone, but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client
to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server's subnet.
D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client's subnet.
Answer: C

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13. Which two devices run ScreenOS software? (Choose two.)
A. NetScreen-5200
B. NetScreen-5400
C. SRX240
D. MX480
Answer: C,D

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14. When is NAT used?
A. for Layer 2 switching
B. for MPLS VPNs
C. to translate between IP addresses
D. for secure tunnels
Answer: B

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15. In the packet flow decision process, which pair identifies interzone traffic?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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NO.5 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A. Check its route table.
B. Check its session table.
C. Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D. Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the initial default username and password for all ScreenOS devices?
A. administrator/password
B. root/password
C. netscreen/netscreen
D. admin/netscreen1
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two activities are included in the scope of IT Asset management? (Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. License Management
C. Security Management
D. Inventory Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) application server used for?
A. To apply SCCD fix packs
B. To generate SCCD EAR files
C. To provide a SCCD runtime environment
D. To customize Maximo Business Object Java code
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of domains within IBM SmartCloud Control Desk?
A. To allow global searches across areas of an organization
B. To specify ownership of a set of objects within the product
C. To separate configuration items and assets into geographical areas
D. To maintain a value list that can be used in fields within the product
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Update Promotion action?
A. To update attributes of the configuration item (CI) based on the information from the Actual CI
B. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the CI
C. To update attributes of the CI based on the information from the Change Management process
D. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the Change Management
process
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which ticket type must be used for a user who is asking for information?
A. Incident
B. Problem
C. Service Request
D. Process Request
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are three types of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk offerings? (Choose three.)
A. Action
B. Descriptive
C. Work Order
D. Work Request
E. Service Catalog
F. Service Request
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.7 When installing an enterprise solution, which edition of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk can be
installed?
A. Only Entry Edition
B. Any product edition
C. Only Everyplace Edition
D. Only Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Promotion process?
A. To create configuration items (CI) from Actual CIs
B. To create Actual CIs from CIs
C. To enable CIs to be used in the Change Management process
D. To enable Actual CIs to be used in the Change Management process
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NO.1 What are the DevOps for Mobile Continuous Testing automation capabilities?
A. Browser Simulator, Unit Test, User Acceptance Test
B. Selenium Unit Test, UlAndroidTest, Integration Test
C. Functional Testing, Web Service Functional Testing, Performance Testing, Test Virtualization, and
collaborative manual testing
D. Record and Playback only in device clouds
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the major enhancement in AppScan 8.7 for mobile security?
A. Support for Blackberry applications
B. Support for touch screen mobile devices
C. Integration with Worklight
D. Support for Objective-C
Answer: D

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NO.3 The IBM Mobile Customer Engagement (Xtify) portfolio includes everything EXCEPT:
A. XML-formatted documents
B. Native Push
C. Rich Push
D. Web Push
E. SMS solutions
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes IBM MobileFirst?
A. MobileFirst is a portfolio of solutions enabling customers to support the full lifecycle of mobile
application development
B. MobileFirst is an architecture enabling customers to develop a business process solution and
requires customers to start by identifying their wireless networking capabilities
C. MobileFirst is an approach to creating mobile applications for companies that haven't yet built
their first mobile application
D. MobileFirst is an IBM product that enables customers to purchase everything they need to build
mobile applications by purchasing a single packaged product
Answer: A

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NO.5 TRUE or FALSE: Tealeaf CX Mobile is an add-on to the Tealeaf CX platform?
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where would you go to find more information on Trusteer Products?
A. Trusteer Sales Kit
B. Trusteer Product Overview
C. Trusteer Mobile Datasheet
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2040-920
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration
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NO.1 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for
their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of
the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of
the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of
the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal
server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be
able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.3 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company.
If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster
with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal
cluster
Answer: B

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NO.4 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as
a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a
WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,
create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment
cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to
propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal
installation
Answer: C

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NO.6 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory
Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate,
certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct
user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere
Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the
installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during
the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.8 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by
administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.1 The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) states there are 'five essential
characteristics, three service models and four deployment models' to Cloud Computing.
What is an example of a service model?
A. Measured service
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Software as a Service
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is currently the most common network topology?
A. Hybrid
B. Point-to-point
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why may Service levels vary for Hybrid Clouds?
A. Hybrid Clouds are constantly shifting from Public to Private Clouds.
B. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Public Clouds.
C. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Private Clouds.
D. SLAs of Hybrid Clouds contain a mix of Public and Private Cloud SLAs.
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Answer: A

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NO.5 Providing a user access to an application in the Cloud requires several steps. In which step
are the user's permissions determined?
A. during the auditing phase
B. during the authentication phase
C. during the authorization phase
D. during the verification phase
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the main challenge for providers as moving to the Cloud causes changes in relation
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A. Cloud providers may be reluctant to ask for more money to deliver their products and services.
B. Cloud providers need to certify their solutions.
C. Providers will have to understand their customers business and redefine SLA's for Cloud
environments.
D. Products are not delivered on premise but through the Cloud.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is not an operational benefit of Cloud Computing?
A. Instant server deployment
B. Less IT staff
C. Managed services
D. Possibility of back-ups as a service
Answer: B

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NO.8 Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?
A. It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B. It offers more security at home than at the office.
C. It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D. It does not require a network connection.
Answer: A

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