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Exam Code: HP2-Z33
Exam Name: HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD
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Exam Code: HP2-W104
Exam Name: Selling HP TippingPoint Security Solutions
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NO.1 An organization wants to upgrade their wireless network to allow employees to connect using
their 802.11ac enabled devices. Which HP access points meet this requirement?
A. HP 425
B. HPMSM466
C. HP MSM430
D. HP 560
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization implements an N+1 redundancy for its access controllers (ACs). When the
primary AC fails, the access points (APs) successfully fail over to the standby AC. However, when the
failed AC comes back in to service, the APs do not switch back to the original AC.
What could cause this to happen?
A. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 1.
B. APs determine which AC to connect to based on load.
C. APs do not fail back to the original AC.
D. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 7.
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Ro
uters/H3C_MSR_50_Series_Routers/Configuration/Operation_Manual/13WLAN_Volume(V1.05)/ 20
0909/ 648837_1285_0.htm(configuring capwap dual-link, 4th row of the table, last column)

NO.3 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs).
What can be used to configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
What does AP Echo Interval of 10 seconds indicate?
A. The access controller should send the access point (AP) an echo request every 10 seconds to
ensure that the AP is still operational.
B. The access point should send the access controller an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure
that the LWAPP tunnel is up.
C. The access point should transmit a beacon every 10 seconds.
D. The access point should send the client an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure that the
client is still connected.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is planning to deploy HP MSM466-R access points in an extreme cold environment
to interconnect to the Unified Wired-WLAN Module in the HP switch.
Which requirement is needed to accomplish this?
A. NEMA 4X enclosures should be used to house the access points.
B. Switch ports must support PoE.
C. PoE redundancy must be enabled on the interface.
D. Access Point must deploy internal antennas.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A network administrator configures 802.1X authentication on a wireless network set with an
HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller. The administrator configures a RADIUS scheme named
radius1 and a Domain scheme name domain1. Which other configuration will enable 802.1X?
A. Option A
B. OptionB
C. OptionC
D. OptionD
Answer: D

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NO.7 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Reference:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739638(v=ws.10).aspxv

NO.8 An administrator changes the setting for VLAN 200 on an HP 830 switch from tagged to
untagged.
How will this change affect the traffic sent over VLAN 200?
A. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded to untagged VLAN 1.
B. Tagged management traffic can no longer be sent on VLAN 200.
C. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will have the 802.1Q tag removed.
D. Tagged traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded without changing the 802.1Q tag.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://community.spiceworks.com/topic/ 430141-understanding-vlans-with-tagged-andu
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Exam Name: HITACHI DATA SYSTEMS CERTIFIED SPECIALIST -NAS ARCHITECT
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NO.1 A customer has just implemented anti-virus scanning on their Hitachi NAS Platform and they
are experiencing degraded performance since the implementation.
Which three actions should the customer take to improve performance? (Choose three.)
A. Increase the number of anti-virus scanning servers.
B. Enable SMB signing to reduce protocol overhead.
C. Upgrade the anti-virus scanning server hardware.
D. Optimize the network connectivity between the anti-virus scanning servers and the Hitachi NAS
Platform.
E. Enable ICMP on the anti-virus scanning servers.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 A customer plans to implement SNMP management tools for their Hitachi NAS Platform from
the customer's management LAN.
Which two are needed? (Choose two.)
A. a configured SMTP server
B. a configured community string
C. Admin-EVS accessible from the customer's management LAN
D. an enabled HTTPS certificate
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Your customer would like to implement a two-node Hitachi NAS Platform 4000 cluster
using a HUS 110 storage system. The HUS is shared with other Open Systems platforms. Ports OB
and 1B are the only ports available on the HUS. Hport 1 and 3 are the only ports available on the
Hitachi NAS Platform nodes.
Which two wiring and zoning configurations should be used? (Choose two.)
A. Hport 1 of both nodes, and HUS port OB must be connected to switch 1 and could be in the same
zone.
B. Hport 1 and 3 of node 1, and HUS port OB must be connected to switch 1 and could be in the
same zone.
C. Hport 3 of both nodes,and HUS port 1B must be connected to switch 2 and could be in the same
zone.
D. Hport 1 and 3 of node 2, and HUS port 1B must be connected to switch 2 and could be in the
same zone.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A customer uses a Hitachi NAS Platform 4000 integrated into a Windows Active Directory
infrastructure and wants to know how security modes can be used in their environment.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. File system security modes can be applied to file systems or individual virtual volumes.
B. The most appropriate security mode is the Mixed mode.
C. The most appropriate security mode is the UNIX (supports Windows) mode.
D. The most appropriate security mode is the NTFS mode.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 You are designing a solution for a customer who wants to optimize network performance for
their iSCSI environment of 20 Microsoft SQL servers on their Hitachi NAS Platform.
Which three actions do you suggest to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. Create a private VLAN between the Microsoft SQL server and the Hitachi NAS Platform.
B. Create a LAG on the Hitachi NAS platform using all available interfaces.
C. Use the latest open source iSCSI initiator in the Microsoft SQL server.
D. Use the spanning tree protocol.
E. Add multiple network interfaces to their Microsoft SQL server and use MPIO.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 A customer wants to configure Data Migrator jobs to allow them to migrate unused data to a
slower tier of disk.
Which three Data Migrator parameters must be configured? (Choose three.)
A. path
B. replication
C. rule
D. schedule
E. task
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 You are working on a proposal for a VMware customer which includes a Hitachi NAS Platform
4000 in a two-node cluster with a single HUS 150 system attached.
What are two best practices when architecting the solution? (Choose two.)
A. HDP should not be used with TFS.
B. Configure RAID-6 fortier0.
C. Dedicate HDP pools solely to the HNAS system.
D. Maintain a ratio of 1 or 2 HDP volumes for each RAID group that is used in the DP pool.
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Your customer wants to issue administrative commands to a Hitachi NAS Platform 4000 over
their data network using scripting.
What must you do?
A. Change the firewall setting in SMU to allow access to the admin EVS.
B. Assign an IP address to the admin EVS on the data network aggregate.
C. Run the scripted commands against any existing file services EVS.
D. Add an additional IP address to the file services EVS used by the clients.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-004
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NO.1 Which is ensured by the Business Change Manager in the process Realizing the Benefits?
A. Optimal running of the programme verified by audits and reviews
B. Effective benefits realization through creating a Benefits Management Strategy
C. Readiness of the organization to implement the changes
D. Alignment of project scope with benefits realization
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why are programme governance baselines updated?
A. Reflect lessons learned, in Managing the Tranches
B. Adjust programme governance to align with project governance, in Delivering the Capability
C. Reflect lessons from earlier programmes, in Identifying a Programme
D. Prepare for benefit reviews, in Realizing the Benefits
Answer: A

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NO.3 What document describes how the roles in the programme team relate to each other?
A. Stakeholder Profiles
B. Blueprint
C. Project Dossier
D. Organization Structure
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which is NOT an objective of the programme communications process?
A. Ensure expectations about what will be delivered remain realistic
B. Maintain high levels of awareness and commitment
C. Specify how stakeholders will be identified
D. Describe what future operations are likely to look like
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which describes the result of a risk on a programme?
A. Risk cause
B. Risk appetite
C. Risk aggregation
D. Risk effect
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which is a feature of effective programme organization needed to deliver the programme's
desired outcomes?
A. Transition management
B. Blueprint
C. Gated reviews
D. Management structures
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which is evidenced by the Business Case?
A. Continuing affordability of the programme
B. Responsibility for managing the Business Change Team
C. Information about what will be subject to review
D. Risk responses for the initial programme risks
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which is NOT a reason for Managing the Tranches?
A. Implement monitoring and control governance for the programme
B. Assess the programme regularly to check it is in line with the strategic direction of the
organization
C. Achieve stabilization of operational areas which have transitioned to the new state
D. Update programme governance baselines to reflect lessons learned
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which is the main Study Output from the Start Up or Inception stage of a project?
A. Information to clarify a viable Brief
B. Functional definition of project
C. Information to improve the Business Case
D. Maximized value
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the principal output from allocation to categories and the idea selection matrix?
A. A list of rejected ideas
B. A list of ideas or options that should be developed further
C. Plans to develop selected ideas into value improving proposals
D. Approved value improving proposals
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which is a benefit of the MoV Study Leader reporting to the Programme Manager?
A. It enables the Programme Manager to pass valuable lessons learned during one project on to
other projects
B. It eliminates the need for regular meetings of the Senior MoV Practitioner and Study Leaders
C. It replaces the need to involve the Project Sponsor in MoV Studies who may be busy
D. It enables the Programme Manager to report to the Senior MoV Practitioner and MoV Board on
lessons learned
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which technique would you use to understand "business as usual"?
A. Benchmarking
B. Weighting techniques
C. MoV health check
D. Process mapping
Answer: D

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NO.5 Why may cost benefit analysis (CBA) be applied when developing a Value Improving Proposal
(VIP)?
A. It compares the initial magnitude of cost of an MoV Study with the long term benefits it will
deliver
B. All new policies, programmes and projects should be subject to comprehensive but proportionate
assessment
C. It is used in conjunction with discounted cash flow to ensure that the lowest cost VIP is always
selected
D. It assesses the benefits of implementing a proposal against the risk that the VIP may fail
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement about applying mind showering in MoV is true?
A. Uses the cost model as a guide to focus on idea generation
B. Discourages foolish ideas
C. Focuses on idea quality NOT quantity
D. Ensures that all ideas are made visible
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is obligatory in MoV?
A. Seven principles which are obligatory for good practice
B. Eight main groups of processes which are described in detail
C. One core requirement to embed MoV across the organisation
D. Two function analysis techniques which must be applied
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which describes the range of return on investment that has been demonstrated by US
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A. Less than 10 to 1
B. Less than 20 to 1
C. Less than 30 to 1
D. More than 30 to 1
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which may be funded from a risk budget?
A. Corrections due to off-specifications
B. Impact analysis of requests for change
C. Implementation of a fallback plan
D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true?
1.The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists.
2.The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the
current status of a project before the Project Board authorizes a project,
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: D

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NO.4 When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following refers to the actions identified to bring a situation to a level where
exposure to a risk is acceptable?
A. Risk category
B. Risk description
C. Risk response
D. Risk status
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the first task of product-based planning?
A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
B. Write the Project Product Description
C. Identify dependencies
D. Create the product breakdown structure
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true?
1, The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid,
2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred
to the Project Manager down by the Project Board.
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Answer: C

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NO.8 If an informal issue is defined as a problem or concern, where should it first be recorded?
A. Issue Register
B. Risk Register
C. Daily Log
D. Exception Report
Answer: C

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Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
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NO.1 What process is used by the Project Board to respond to an Exception Report?
A. Controlling a Stage
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Managing Product Delivery
D. Directing a Project
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement defines a risk?
A. A certain event occurring in the future that will have a negative impact on the project's objectives
B. An event that has already occurred that the Project Manager must deal with immediately
C. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will have an effect on the
achievement of objectives
D. An uncertain event, or set of events that, should it or they occur, will be automatically escalated
to the Project Board for a response
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why is a Project Brief produced?
A. To act as a trigger for the Starting up a Project process
B. To record the strategies and management controls to be used by a project
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project
D. To be used by the Project Board as a basis for reviewing the progress of a project
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?
A. Define quality responsibilities
B. Gain acceptance of the project product
C. Agree acceptance criteria
D. Set quality tolerances
Answer: B

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NO.5 In what product should the quality criteria for a specialist product be recorded?
A. Quality Management Strategy
B. Quality Register
C. Product Description
D. Project Product Description
Answer: C

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NO.6 Who carries out audits that are independent of the project?
A. Quality assurance
B. Project Assurance
C. Project Support
D. Project Manager
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which product is NOT created in the Managing a Stage Boundary process?
A. Benefits Review Plan
B. End Stage Report
C. Lessons Report
D. Exception Plan
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is defined as a temporary organization that is created for the purpose of delivering one
or more business products?
A. Corporate or programme management
B. A project
C. A product breakdown structure
D. A user group
Answer: B

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NO.1 You need to edit a Quote.
Which quote status will allow you to make changes to the Quote?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Revise
D. Draft
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are adding resources to a resource group. Which three resource types can you add?
(Choose Three)
A. facility
B. business unit
C. resource group
D. name
E. users
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.3 What role do keywords play in the Knowledge Base?
A. Keywords are only used to manage the Knowledge Base.
B. Keywords relate similar cases to each other
C. Keywords are used to search for articles.
D. Keywords define the subject tree.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you qualify a lead, which two records will also be created?(Choose TWO)
A. Account
B. Contract
C. Campaign Response
D. Opportunity
E. Contact
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 A user reports that he cannot delete a Knowledge Base article template.
You need to ensure that the user can delete the template.
What should you do?
A. Delete all articles associated with the article template.
B. Unpublish the article template.
C. Ensure that the user has the Delete Article permission enabled.
D. Deactivate the article template.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company has resellers who purchase routine support cases at no cost.
A reseller plans to purchase additional support cases at a cost.
What should you create?
A. An incident-based template
B. A time-based template
C. A contract template
D. A contract allotment
Answer: A

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NO.7 In which two circumstances does the autosave process save changes to Lead
records?(Choose TWO)
A. When a user exits a changed record
B. Every 30 seconds
C. When a user creates the record
D. Every 120 seconds
E. Every time a user moves the focus out of an edited field
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which service schedule component should you use to measure skill levels?
A. resource group
B. resources
C. capacity planning
D. selection rule
Answer: C

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NO.1 You administer a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI). The environment runs on a Windows
Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You use Systems Center 2012 R2
Operations Manager to troubleshoot performance issues.
Some users of dedicated virtual desktops report slow response times within their sessions.
Operations Manager reports indicate that a performance bottleneck exists at the storage layer.
You need to manage the amount of input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the dedicated
desktop pool can generate.
What should you do?
A. Enable Resource Metering on the Hyper-V host server.
B. Configure Operations Manager to monitor virtual machine disk performance on the Hyper-V host
server. Configure monitoring alerts for virtual machine use greater than the allowed IOPS.
C. For each virtual machine, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and max mum
value for the Mbps property.
D. For each virtual machine, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS). Set a minimum and maximum
value for IOPS.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An organization has private and public cloud resources. The organization has Windows Server
2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You have one four-node cluster of Hyper-V
host servers. You use System Center 2012 R2.
The virtual machines that run on the cluster must remain online when you install updates on the
Hyper-V host servers.
You need to install updates on the Hyper-V host servers.
What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Serve' Update Services (WSUS) to provide updates to the Hyper-V host
servers in the cluster.
B. Add all the virtual machines hosted on the cluster to a collection in System Center 2012 R2
Configuration Manager. Deploy updates to the collection.
C. Use the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. Configure Windows Update on the Hyper-V host servers to download updates from Microsoft
Update.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has Hyper-v host servers that run Windows Server 2012. The company also
has virtual machines that run Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012.
You upgrade the Hyper-V host servers to Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that all virtual machines can PXE boot by using a standard network adapter.
What should you do?
A. Create Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Upgrade all existing virtual machines to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Upgrade the existing virtual machines that run Windows Server 2008 R2 to Windows Server 2012
R2.
D. Create Generation 1 virtual machines.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a
Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed.
You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM) average physical memory used by a VM over a period
of time highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time highest amount of disk
spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools.
Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering C Reliability Monitor
C. Resource Monitor
Answer: B

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10. A company has two offices in New York and one office in San Francisco. There is no shared
storage between the San Francisco office and the New York headquarters. AH offices are connected
by a wide area network (WAN). The Hyper-V environment is configured as shown in the following
table:
All virtual machines must be highly available.
You need to configure the environment.
What should you implement?
A. a separate Hyper-V replica between NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
B. a Hyper-V cluster that includes NYC-Host1, NYC-Host2, and SFC-Host1
C. a Hyper-V cluster between NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
D. a Hyper-V replica between NYC-Host1 and NYC-Host2 with an extended replica between
NYC-Host1 and SFC-Host1
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V environment that includes System Center 2012
R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). The environment includes five physical servers. The servers
are configured as follows:
You plan to use VMM to migrate physical machines to virtual machines.
You must migrate all servers that support physical to virtual (P2V) migration.
You need to migrate the servers.
Which three servers should you migrate? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. NYC-WEB
B. NYC-PR
C. NYC-DEV
D. NYC-FS
E. NYC-EX
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
A software company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The
server hosts a single virtual machine (VM) named VM1. VM1 has one virtual CPU, one virtual hard
disk, and one virtual network interface card (NIC) that is attached to an external network.
The company prepares to test its software in VM1. Before testing begins, VM1 must meet the
following requirements:
- Availability of network bandwidth must be maximized.
- VM network connectivity must be fault tolerant.
You need to configure the environment.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.7 You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You plan
to test an update to a virtual machine (VM) in a production environment. You must meet the
following requirements:
--migrate the VM to another Hyper-V host as quickly as possible ensure that the VM configuration is
preserved after the migration is complete
You need to migrate the virtual machine. What should you do first?
A. Create a checkpoint of the VM.
B. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone.
D. Export the VM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server named NYC-HOST1 that has the Hyper-V
role installed. The host server hosts two virtual machines named SALES1 and SALES2. NYC-HOST1
uses storage spaces with tiered storage. The storage spaces contain both solid state disks (SSDs) and
10,000 RPM Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) disks for .vhdx files. Each virtual machine runs on its
own .vhdx file.
You plan to add new virtual machines each month. SALES1 and SALES2 must run at the highest
possible performance at all times.
You need to configure the virtual machines.
What should you do?
A. Add additional SSDs to the storage space that is occupied by SALES1 and SALES2.
B. Replace the 10,000 RPM SAS disks with 15,000 RPM SAS disks.
C. Move the .vhdx files from the storage spaces to individual SAS hard disks.
D. pin the .vhdx files for SALES1 and SALES2 to the fast tier.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You need to ensure that a script is executed as soon as the content of an IFrame has
completed loading. Which form event should you use?
A. TabStateChange
B. OnLoad
C. OnReadyStateComplete
D. OnChange
Answer: C

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NO.2 You write the following code segment to create an Account record by using jQuery and the
Representational State Transfer (REST) endpoint. (Line numbers included for reference only.)
The variable ODataPath is set correctly.
Which code segment should you include at line 03 to create the new Account record?
A. var entity = DSON.stringify(account),
B. var entity = JSON.parse(account),
C. var entity = $.parseXML(account)t
D. var entity = encodeURI(account),
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which method does the Xrm.Page object provide for developers to retrieve values passed to a
form?
A. getPrimaryAttributeValue
B. getObject
C. getDataXml
D. getQueryStringParameters
Answer: D

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NO.4 How should you register a plug-in for use in multiple organizations and in multiple stages?
A. Register the plug-in once for all organizations on the server and create a single configuration that
will be inherited by all plug-in stages.
B. Register the plug-in for each organization individually on the server and create a single
configuration that will be inherited by all plug-in stages.
C. Register the plug-in for each organization individually on the server and configure each stage that
the plug-in will operate in separately.
D. Register the plug-in once for all organizations on the server and configure each stage that the
plug-in will operate in separately.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two features are included in the business application services of a Microsoft Dynamics
CRM application framework?
A. web services
B. multi-tenancy
C. presentation
D. models
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 You are working with Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online and trying to access the Discovery
Service URL.
Which component handles the authentication request?
A. Active Directory
B. NT LAN Manager (NTLM) version 2 authentication
C. security token service (STS)
D. Kerberos version 5 authentication
Answer: D

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NO.7 To which event can you add a function at run-time by using JavaScript?
A. TabStatcChange
B. OnReadyStateComplete
C. OnSave
D. OnLoad
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which supported script library should you use for Web Resource UI development in
cross-browser environments?
A. Prototype.js
B. JQuery.js
C. SDK.REST.js
D. json2.js
Answer: B

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NO.1 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Many employees work in remote locations with intermittent Internet connectivity. Employees must
be able to access and reply to email messages, and access calendars, even when their devices are
not connected to the Internet.
You need to ensure that employees can access their Microsoft Exchange content offline.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Directory Synchronization tool for offline access.
B. Deploy and configure the AppFabric Caching service.
C. Configure the Microsoft SkyDrive Pro Windows Sync client for offline access.
D. Configure Exchange ActiveSync devices.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You need to configure Microsoft Lync Online to disable alerts for voicemail and instant messages to
Windows Phones.
What should you do?
A. Use the Set-CsHostedVoiceMailPolicy Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Use the Set-CsPushNotificationConfiguration Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. In the Lync admin center, select the Display presence information only to a user's contacts option.
D. Use the Set-CsUser Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company is upgrading its 3,000 client computers to Office 365 ProPlus. The company uses
the Telemetry Dashboard to identify document compatibility issues. The Telemetry Agent is
deployed to all client computers. The telemetry environment is described in the following table.
You need to ensure that telemetry data is collected for more than 20 client computers at a time.
What should you do?
A. Migrate the telemetry database to a computer that runs SQL Server 2008.
B. Use the Registry Editor to trigger the data collection.
C. Use Group Policy to set the MaxConnectionsPerServer setting to 100.
D. Migrate the Telemetry Processor to a computer that runs Windows Server 2012.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your company uses Microsoft Exchange Online. Employees frequently need to change their
primary email addresses.
The messaging operations team has requested a script to simplify the process of changing email
addresses.
The script must perform the following actions:
- Obtain employee information from a. csv file that has a header line of
UserPrincipalName,CurrentPrimaryAddress,NewPrimaryAddress.
- Change employees' primary email addresses to the values in the
NewPrimaryAddress column.
- Retain employees' current email addresses as secondary addresses.
You create the following Windows PowerShell script to read the . csv file. Line numbers are included
for reference only.
You need to complete the script to meet the requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you insert at line 06?
A. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -WindowsEmailAddress $NewPrimary
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -PrimarySmtpAddress $NewPrimary
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity $UserPrincipalName -ExternalEmailAddress $NewPrimary
D. Set-MailUser -Identity $UserPrincipalName -EmailAddresses@{add = "SMTP:" + "$NewPrimary";
remove="SMTP:" + "$OldPrimary"}
Answer: D

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NO.5 You manage client computing devices for a company. Office 365 was recently deployed for all
employees in the sales department.company policy requires the installation of Office 365 ProPlus on
all new client computing devices for sales department employees.
The company recently purchased Surface Pro 2 devices for all sales department employees. You are
testing a new Office deployment for a specific user on a Surface Pro 2. You are unable to activate
Office on the Surface Pro 2. An error message states that the install limit has been reached.
You need to activate Office 365 ProPlus on the Surface Pro 2 for the user.
What should you do?
A. Sign in to the Office 365 portal as the user and deactivate unused Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
B. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator. Remove and then re-add
the user's Office 365 ProPlus license.
C. Install a licensed copy of Office Professional Plus 2013 that is covered under a volume licensing
agreement.
D. Sign in to the Office 365 admin center as an Office 365 administrator and deactivate unused
Office 365 ProPlus licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Office 365 ProPlus
and has multiple Microsoft SharePointOnline sites.
The company recently started a project that requires employees to collaborate with external users
on the development of a set of documents that are stored in a team site.
You need to ensure that external users can access and edit the documents without affecting the
security of other content.
What should you do?
A. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Visitors group.
B. Create a new SharePoint team site and share it by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
C. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the external users
to the Visitors group.
D. Share the existing SharePoint team site by using the Share function and adding the
external users to the Contributors group.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Microsoft Exchange
Online and Microsoft Lync Online.
An employee named User1 has the user name, email address, and Lync address
User1@contoso.com.
The employee requests that you change only his Lync address to User1Sales@contoso.com.
You start a Windows PowerShell session and run the following commands, providing your admin
account credentials when prompted:
You need to complete the process of updating the employee's Lync address without affecting any
other addresses.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run next?
A. Set-MsolUser -UserPrincipalName $ID -ProxyAddresses@{add = "$NewAddress"; remove =
"$OldAddress">
B. Set-Mailbox -Identity $ID -EmailAddresses@{add = "$NewAddress"; remove = "$Old Address"}
C. Set-Mailbox -Identity $ID -WindowsEmailAddress $NewAddress
D. Set-CsUser -Identity $ID -ProxyAddresses@{add = M$NewAddress''; remove="$OldAddress">
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription.
The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking
platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls.
You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Answer: C

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NO.1 The variable named "ctx" is the context of an HTML5 canvas object. What does the following
code fragment draw? ctx.arc(x, y, r, 0, Math.PI, true);
A. a circle at the given point
B. a square at the given point
C. a semi-circle at the given point
D. a line from one point to another
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NO.2 Which two events are supported on touch devices? (Choose two.)
A. click
B. touchstart
C. selection
D. drag
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which CSS property defines which sides of an element where other floating elements are not
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A. float
B. position
C. display
D. clear
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three are valid JavaScript variables? (Choose three.)
A. xyz1
B. .Int
C. int1
D. _int
E. 1xyz
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NO.5 Which positioning scheme places an object in normal document flow?
A. absolute
B. relative
C. fixed
D. float
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which layout can you create by using a single CSS3 region?
A. a table layout
B. a snaked-column layout
C. a multiple column liquid layout
D. a multiple column fixed layout
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NO.7 In CSS, the flow-into property deposits:
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C. the flow into the regions.
D. content into the flow.
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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Match the CSS terms to the corresponding examples. (To answer, drag the appropriate term from
the column on the left to its example on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or
not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)
Answer:

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NO.1 You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM on-premises.
The installation fails and you receive an installation error.
You need to access the installation log files to view the details about the error.
What should you do?
A. Query the Microsoft Dynamics CRM database and view the log table.
B. View the installation log files in the folder <SystemDrive>'\Program Files\Microsoft Dynamics
CRM\Logs.
C. View the installation log files in the folder
<SysremDnVe>:\Users\<L/serno/ne>\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\MSCRM\Logs.
D. View the installation log files by opening the Event Viewer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You must back up the component that is required to restore Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server if
the server fails.What should you back up?
A. the folder <systemdrive>'\Program Files\Microsoft Dynamics CRM\ that is on the Deployment
Administration server
B. the registry hive named HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\MSCRM that is on each of
the back-end servers
C. the database MSCRM_CONFIG and all ofthe organization databases that are on the Microsoft SQL
Server
D. the Inetpub folders that are on each of the front-end servers
Answer: C

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NO.3 You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
You did NOT install Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions.
Which task are you able to perform?
A. Upload fetch-based reports.
B. Run default reports.
C. Import an organization.
D. Upload SQL-based reports.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two versions of Microsoft Office support Microsoft Dynamics CRM Client for Microsoft
Office Outlook? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Office XP
B. Office 2003
C. Office 2013
D. Office 2011 for Mac
E. Office 2007
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 You create a Microsoft Dynamics CRM Email Router incoming profile.
You need to connect to a Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) email server.
Which two types of authentication should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
A. Windows authentication
B. NT LAN Manager (NTLM) authentication
C. Pass-through authentication
D. Clear-text authentication
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Microsoft Office Outlook on a user's laptop by using a
command prompt.At the command prompt you run setupclient.exe with the
/disableofflinecapability switch.
What is the result of the installation?
A. The installation includes the additional components for offline capability, but offline access is not
enabled.The user can enable offline capability later by clicking the Go Offline button in Outlook.
B. No additional components are installed for offline capability.The user can enable offline capability
by clicking the Go Offline button in Outlook.
C. No additional components are installed for offline capability.The Go Offline button is hidden in
Outlook.
D. No additional components are installed for offline capability.The user cannot enable offline
capability because the user's security roles are updated to remove the Go Offline in Outlook
privilege.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM to use server-side synchronization.Which Microsoft
Dynamics CRM service processes email messages?
A. Sandbox Service
B. Monitoring Service
C. Asynchronous Processing Service
D. VSS Writer
Answer: C

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NO.8 You configure two separate deployments of Microsoft Dynamics CRM.You need to set up
reporting for the two deployments.Which action should you perform?
A. Install one instance of Microsoft SQL Server Repotting Services on one server.
B. Install a named instance and a default instance of Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services on one
server.
C. Install two named instances of Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services on one server.
D. Install one instance of Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services on one server, and then install
one instance of Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services on a second server.
Answer: D

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