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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Avaya 3108 Exam Prep 66 Q&As
Updated: 2014-09-18
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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
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NO.1 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

Avaya test answers   6103 Braindumps   6103 Actual Test

NO.2 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

Avaya Study Guide   6103 Dumps PDF   6103 Exam Cram
Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.5 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.6 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

Avaya Test Answers   6103 certification training   6103 Exam Tests

NO.7 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

Avaya   6103 Training online   6103 Exam PDF   6103 Practice Exam
Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.8 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Avaya 3108 Practice Test 66 Q&As
Updated: 2014-09-15
3108 Braindumps Detail : Click Here

Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
Avaya 6103 Exam Questions 68 Q&As
Updated: 2014-09-15
6103 Practice Exam Detail : Click Here

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NO.1 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

Avaya VCE Dumps   6103   6103 Practice Exam   6103   6103 Free download   6103 Practice Exam

NO.2 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

Avaya PDF VCE   6103 test questions   6103 exam simulations   6103

NO.3 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

Avaya exam   6103 Exam Dumps   6103 Exam Dumps   6103 Real Questions   6103 Latest Dumps
Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.4 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

Avaya   6103   6103 exam simulations   6103 Latest Dumps

NO.5 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

Avaya Practice Exam   6103 Dumps PDF   6103   6103

NO.6 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

Avaya Training online   6103   6103   6103 Braindumps
Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.7 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

Avaya original questions   6103 Braindumps   6103 Practice Test   6103 Exam Cost   6103 Braindumps

NO.8 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

Avaya   6103 dumps   6103 questions

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Exam Code: 6209.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Center CCT and Multimedia Implementation Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
53 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-12

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NO.1 A technician has installed Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) within the Contact Center environment.
Multimedia skillsets must be defined in the Contact Center Administration (CCMA) for multimedia routing
to occur.
What name convention differentiates multimedia skillsets from voice skillsets?
A. Add a multimedia suffix to the skillset name
B. Add a multimedia prefix to the skillset name
C. Add a multimedia disposition code to the skillset name
D. Add multimedia to the skillset name.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) and need to add the CCT server in the Contact
Center Administration (CCMA) web interface and associate it to a Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS). After adding the CCT server, you are unable to associate it with the CCMS, what is a problem
with this installation?
A. No CCT users have been created
B. The CCT server does not have valid licenses
C. The CCT server has not been added in CCMA
D. Open Queue has not been enabled on the CCMS
Answer: D

Avaya   6209.1 test questions   6209.1 practice test   6209.1

NO.3 A technician has installed Communication Control Toolkit (CCT). Which three elements are added to the
event viewer? (Choose three)
A. NCCT Call Log
B. NCCT Security
C. NCCT Audit Log
D. NCCT Error Log
E. NCCT System Log
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 A technician is adding an agent in the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) utility. But no
option to add Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) user account details is presented.
What option must be taken to solve this problem?
A. The agent user type must be set to supervisor agent
B. Enter the SIP address of the agent ­ t he vo i ce u ri se r ve r
C. The Create CCT agent
option must be selected
D. The agent first and last name must be populated
Answer: C

Avaya exam prep   6209.1   6209.1

NO.5 The technician has installed a Contact Center multimedia (CCMM)email and web services to the
Contact Center solution.
What do the customers email and web server connect to?
A. Customer LAN
B. Contact Center Server Subnet
C. Customer server ELAN
D. Contact Center Server ELAN
Answer: A

Avaya practice test   6209.1 test questions   6209.1   6209.1   6209.1 study guide   6209.1

NO.6 Where can the settings are configured for the inbound mail handler (IMH) such as the time between
intervals?
A. Through the Contact Center Manager Administration Network Configurations screen
B. Through the email server
C. Through the Outbound Campaign Manager
D. Through the Multimedia Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.7 An agent with Avaya Aura Agent Desktop cannot log into the Contact Center. The technician needs to
verify network connectivity from the agent PC to the Contact Center Multimedia server.
Which command is used to verify the physical network connection between agent PC to the CCMM
server?
A. Arp
B. Ping
C. Tracert
D. Ipconfig
Answer: B

Avaya   6209.1   6209.1

NO.8 A technician has been asked to generate outbound and multimedia reports based on data stored
within the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) database. The technician must also access multimedia
data sources through the Report Creation Wizard for reporting customization. The CCMM server has
been added to the Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA).
Which additional step is required to complete this task?
A. Assign the CCMM server as a reporting server for the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
B. Add the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) server to theCCMA
C. Add the Microsoft Exchange server to the CCMA
D. Assign the CCT server as a reporting server for the CCMS
Answer: A

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NO.9 The technician needs to install an Avaya Aura Contact center in a co-resident configuration to support a
contact center with less than 200 agents or less than 12000 calls per hour. The Contact Center Support
Multimedia Outbound and Universal Networking. The co-resident applications link through Contact Center
Manager Server, License Manager, Contact Center Manager infrastructure, Communication Control
Toolkit, Contact Center Multimedia, Server Utility and Avaya Media Server. For this installation, what is the
drive letter and size of the hard disk partition required for the Avaya Aura Contact Center application?
A. C:\ and 60 GB
B. D:\ and 80 GB
C. E:\ and 120 GB
D. F:\ and 300 GB
Answer: B

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NO.10 A network drive is being mapped that will be used to setup the Contact Center Multimedia database.
The following information is provided:
-The Contact Center Multimedia server name is CCMM001
-The Contact Center Multimedia server IP address is 192.167.140.15
-The backup server name is backup004
-The backup server IP address is 192.167.140.20
-The backup folder name is dbbackup
What is the UNC path for the mapped network drive.?
A. \192.167.140.15\dbbackup
B. \CCMM001\dbbackup
C. \192.167.140.20\dbbackup
D. \dbbackup\backup004
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3300
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Contact Center Administration Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
61 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-12

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NO.1 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center will use the Contact Router for all calls entering the system.
What is one function of the Contact Router?
A. It links agents to applications.
B. It links skillsets to applications.
C. It links Intrlnslcs to applications.
D. It links Control Directory Numbers (CDN) to applications.
Answer: D

Avaya exam prep   3300   3300   3300 pdf

NO.2 How many seconds are recommended that a script should wait after queuing a contact to a skillset?
A. WAIT 1
B. WAIT 2
C. WAIT 4
D. WAIT 8
Answer: B

Avaya exam prep   3300   3300 exam dumps

NO.3 Which two commands can update the value of a call variable? (Choose two.)
A. GIVE
B. READVAR
C. ASSIGN TO
D. COLLECT DIGITS
E. SEND REQUEST
Answer: CD

Avaya exam dumps   3300   3300 answers real questions

NO.4 If the call is not queued and the skillset is in service. It must be re-queued.
What is the proper script syntax to accomplish this requirement.?
A. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_stlll_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
B. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
QUEUE TO SKILLSET automotive
WAIT 2
ELSE
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF E
ND IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_bu5y_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
C. Section wait_loop
IF QUEUED AND
IF OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
D. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED AND
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECUE walt_loop
Answer: B

Avaya   3300 exam   3300   3300 test questions
3.A customer is using the intrinsic Call Rate in & script. For what Information is the system looking when
the Call Rate Intrinsic is used?
A. the number of contacts that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
B. the total number of active calls in the system
C. the number of calls that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
D. the number of calls answered in the preceding 10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has written a script application. The Problem View Is
showing a syntax error with the following area of script: IF DAY OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY
THEN
What is the correct syntax required for this application?
A. IF DAYS OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
B. IF DAY OF WEEK EQUAI S MON..FRI THEN
C. IF DAY OF WEEK - MONDAY FRIDAY THEN
D. IF DAY OF WEEK = MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
Answer: D

Avaya certification training   3300 demo   3300   3300

NO.6 A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center would like to create a custom Application Display The
data fields available are cumulative, fixed, and instantaneous. What is an example of a cumulative data
field?
A. Application Name
B. Average Answered Delay
C. Calls Waiting
D. Service Level Threshold
Answer: B

Avaya exam simulations   3300   3300 demo   3300 original questions   3300 test questions

NO.7 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to see in a report the percentage of calls being
answered in the automotive skillset in 20 seconds or less.
What would need to be programmed to obtain this data?
A. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 %Servlce_Level_S Threshold to 20, the Level
2 %Servlce_Level_S threshold to 30, and assign the threshold class to the automotive ski 11 set.
B. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 %Service_Level_S Threshold lo 10, the Level 2%
Service_Level_S Threshold to 20 and assign the threshold class to the automotive skillset.
C. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
D. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
Answer: D

Avaya exam   3300 dumps   3300 practice test

NO.8 A customer with Avaya Contract Center in SIP environment would like to add voice processing
commands to an application.
Which block would be required?
A. IVR
B. Treatment
C. Output
D. Input
Answer: D

Avaya   3300   3300 answers real questions

NO.9 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a loop in a script application with the following
parameters:
1. While the caller is in the loop, the customer wants an announcement to play every thirty seconds, and
the queued status of the call and the In-service status of the skillset must be evaluated
2. If the call is not queued, and if the skillset is out of service, the call will be sent to an out of service
announcement

NO.10 Which statement regarding scripts is true?
A. A secondary script is the only place treatments can be applied to the call.
B. A primary script is referenced directly from the Master script, otherwise It Is a secondary script.
C. A primary script is the only place that call variables can be assigned.
D. Secondary and primary scripts are exactly the same.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6001-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Session Manager and System Manager)
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70 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-12

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NO.1 What is the benefit of using the Communication Profile Editor to modify users?
A. It allows an administrator to change all the values of the Communication Profile settings
for multiple
SIP System Manager users at one time
B. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager user at one tine
C. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple SIP users
at one time
D. It allows an administrator to change all the values of a User Profile for multiple users at
one time
E. It allows an administrator to change the values of the Session Manager profile settings for
only a single
SIP System Manager users at one time
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which definition describes a Session Manager community?
A. A community represents a group of users in a single location or group of locations. A
community helps
define maximum numbers of users in each location for purposes of bandwidth management,
quality of
service, and Call Admissions Control
B. A community is a group of peer Session Manager instances in an enterprise organization.
Each
Session Manager in the community automatically shares configuration and policy data,
meaning that
administrators settings and policies only once and that all Session Managers will process
requests in the
same way
C. A community represents all SIP Entities known to a Session Manager it is through the
community that
data from SIP Entities can be collected and merged, ready tor easy analysis
D. A community is a sub-divided group of users in which half of the group make use of one
Session
Manager as their Primary while the other half make use of a different Session Manager as
their Primary
Each half also makes use of the other Session Manager as their Secondary for purposes of
redundancy
Answer: D

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NO.3 Session Manager has a routing policy that routes calls made to any number beginning
with 100
to SIP
Entity X. However, sip: 1001@avaya com
is the SP communication profile address of user Y, User Y is
not currently registered (signed in )with Session Manager What will happen if Session
Manager receives
a call addressed to sip 1001@avaya com
and exactly why?
A. It depends on the time ranges of the policy If the call is placed inside a defined tine range
for the policy,
the call will be routed to destination X If not, then Session Manager will attempt to route the
call to user Y.
Since Y is not registered, the call will timeout, and the call will fail
B. Since user Y is not currently registered, the call will be handled by the routing policy. If the
call is placed
during a time rage specified by the call policy, then the call will be routed to destination X. If
not, then the
call will fail
C. Since the destination URI matches a communication profile SIP handle, Session Manager
will not use
the routing policy in handing the call The call will fail since user Y is not currently registered
D. Since the destination URI matches a routing policy dial pattern, Session Manager will give
no
consideration to the user Y registration status, xx the call is made during a time rage for the
policy, the
policy will be applied and the will be routed to be destination X. If not, then the orignal URL of
sip
1001@avaya com will be used as the destination to which Session Manager will route the
call
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two outcomes of running SMnetSetup on a server that has an existing
installation of Session
Manager? (Choose two)
A. The network and date/time is configured on the server
B. A system administrator login will be created
C. The same version of the Session Manager software currently installed is re-installed
D. The current version of the Session Manager software is upgraded
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 How is Call Admission Control enabled?
A. Call Admission Control is enabled in the SIP Entity by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per fall
and Managed Bandwidth
B. Call Admission Control is enabled on the Session Manager instance by specifying a value
for Average
bandwidth per can and Managed Bandwidth
C. Call Admission Control is enabled on a Location by specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth
D. Call Admission Control is enabled on an Entity Link specifying a value for Average
bandwidth per can
and Managed Bandwidth on the Location screen in Session Manager
Answer: C

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NO.6 When you upgrade Session Manager and you had been using the hardware SM-100,
the network
connection of the SM-100 must be moved to which port on the Session Manager server?
A. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 2
B. eth2 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 3
C. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 1
D. eth0 port of 2nd NIC, labeled 0
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which component of the Communication Profile can be changed by modifying a user
via
Communication Profile Edition?
A. Communication Address
B. Session Manager Profile
C. Endpoint Profile
D. Messaging Profile
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which URL should be used to access the web console to deploy System Manager?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/Webconsole
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two statements describe how adaptations affect the routing of a request?
(Choose two)
A. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered incoming
adaptation
B. Session Manager matches the dialed digits after applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
C. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered incoming
adaptation
D. Session Manager matches the dialed digits before applying any administered outgoing
adaptation
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 An IMS type feature server has been installed by another administrator beam. They
have also
configured Session Manager to route all incoming calls for user John Smith to be routed to
the new
feature server, It appears from traces and capturing network traffic that Session Manager
does indeed
route john Smith s incoming calls to the feature server, but that the feature server does not
appear to take
any action besides returning the request bock to Session Manager Which field has been
NCORRECTLY
configured?
A. Application Handle
B. Entity Link port
C. Orignating Application Sequence
D. Terminating Application Sequence
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 7003-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
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65 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-12

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NO.1 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

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NO.2 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equi r e ment s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

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NO.9 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 6104
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam)
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61 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-12

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NO.1 A client calls and says that an employee disconnected his laptop docking station and
connected a
wireless router to the LAN using the station's Ethernet cable, and the 8100 system did not detect
the
presence of this unmanaged Access Point (AP). The client has globally enabled RF scanning.
Which two statements describe why the fit no system is behaving in this manner? (Choose two.)
A. The AP deployment is too sparse to allow successful triangulation on the router.
B. The outer is successfully mimicking a known managed AP.
C. The APs are operating at maximum load.
D. The deployment does not include WIDS/WIPS APs.
E. The APs are not configured to scan all channels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A customer has deployed an Avaya WLAN 8l00 system with minimal coverage and has placed
all of the Access Points (APs) in operational mode.
Assuming that the customer has deployed no other wireless security measures, which behavior
should
their technicians expect when they enable rogue AP threat mitigation?
A. The APs will send de authentication messages to all rogue APs and their associated clients with
Basic
Service Set Identifications (BSSIDs) different from their own.
B. The APs will scan the legal channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication
messages to the rogue APs.
C. The APs will send de authentication messages to the clients associated to rogue APs operating on
the
same channel as the managed AP.
D. The APs will scan all channels, build a rogue mitigation list, and send de-authentication messages
to
all rogue APs and their associated clients.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is replacing a failed WLAN Management System (WMS) server and wants to
import a
saved configuration onto the new server. The new Access Point (AP) license has already been
installed
on the new WMS and everything is working.
What is the best way to import a previously saved configuration?
A. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\conf and restart WMS.
B. Manually add all WC(s) in the domain, and then sync the policies from the Active Mobility
Domain
Controller (AMDC).
C. Put the backup configuration files in C:\Program Files\Avaya\WMS\backup and then in WMS go
to
configuration to Database Backup and choose the file to be imported.
D. Load the backup configuration directly into MySQL.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement describes the relationships between AP profile, radio profiles, and network
profiles?
A. Radio profiles refer to AP profile, which in turn refer to network profiles.
B. The AP profile refer to AP profiles for radio specific settings and network profiles for SSID specific
settings.
C. Network profiles refer to AP profiles for mapping SSIDs to APs, and AP profiles refer to radio
profiles
for radio specific settings.
D. The three are linked together in the configuration by mobility profiles which logically map them
to each
other.
Answer: B

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NO.5 With WLAN management System (WMS) user role as ROLE_ADMIN , which actions can be
performed?
A. Create new users, create configuration, monitor
B. Create new users, monitor
C. Create configuration, monitor
D. Create new users, create configuration
Answer: C

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NO.6 A technician working for a multinational company is using the Captive Portal (CP) features to
localize the welcome screen that company guests see at each location.
What must be done to ensure the correct welcome screen appears at a given site?
A. Copy the correct image to the central http/https server for the Mobility Domain.
B. Customize welcome screen of CP on each Wireless Controller.
C. Set the Remote Authentication Dial in User Service (RADIUS) session-display attribute in the
Guest
group profile to return the configured value of the image file.
D. Set the local database on the wireless Controller to present the image to all unauthenticated
users.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which statement describes the WLAN 8180 controller AC/DC power specification?
A. It operates only on AC power: 110 - 120 VAC / 60 Hz.
B. The maximum power consumption is 190 Watts.
C. Power over Ethernet (Pot) is supported on the ports in front panel.
D. Wireless Controller (WC) 8180 does not support dual power supply.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two DHCP configuration stops must be accomplished for an Access Point (AP) to
identify a
Wireless Controller (WC) to manage it? (Choose two.)
A. The sub-option 08 with value "AVAYA AP" must he Included before other sub options.
B. The prefix "AVAYA-AP" must be included before the list of IP addresses.
C. The IP address of the Active Mobility Domain Controller (AMDC) and Backup Mobility Domain
Controllers (BMDC) must be provided in the 43 field. The AMDC will ensure the AP gets assigned to
the
correct WC.
D. The IP address of any WC in the domain may be provided in the option 43 field. APs will get
assigned
to the correct WC even if it isn t the same IP address as listed in the option 43 field.
E. If the AP needs to be managed by a particular WC, the IP address of that specific controller in the
option 43 field must be specified.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 A technician is performing an initial configuration on a Wireless Controller (WC).
Which command will accurately set the IP address to 10.127.4S.20 with a 24 bit network mask on a
network with no default gateway.?
A. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway none
B. ip address 10.127.45.20.255.255.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip address 10.127.45.20 255.255.255.0 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
D. ip address 10.127.45.20/24 default-gateway 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two DHCP options are required for a Wireless LAN client? (Choose two)
A. DHCP option 3 - Router (Default Gateway)
B. DHCP option 6 - DNS Server D C) DHCP option 12 - Host Name
C. DHCP option 15 - DNS name
D. DHCP option 43 - Vendor specified option for switch discovery
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 132-S-916.2
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Specialist - IP Office Implement and Support Elective Exam)
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Updated: 2014-03-10

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NO.1 A customer wants to have a simple conference bridge with four permanent bridges set up off of a menu
in VoiceMail Pro. The customer also wants each bridge protected with a different static PIN. Where in the
setup of this scenario would you enter the PIN?
A.on the General tab in the menu action
B.on the General tab for each transfer action
C.on the Telephone Number field in the IP Office Short Code
D.in the Properties box for each option in the Touch Tone tab in the menu action
Answer:B

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NO.2 Recordings take up how much space on a hard drive?
A.2MB per minute
B.200KB per minute
C.1MB per minute
D.650KB per minute
Answer:C

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NO.3 Which three options does the IMS user have available in Microsoft?Outlook? (Choose three.)
A.Select IMS server.
B.Select Voicemail Box.
C.Select Voicemail server.
D.Select handset for VM playback.
E.Prompt before connecting to server.
Answer:B D E

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NO.4 When installing IP Hardphones, the engineer wants to use the IEEE 802.3af standard to _____.
A.supply AC voltage to the IP Office
B.supply power to the IP Hardphones
C.perform Layer 3 routing for IP Hardphones
D.filter multicast traffic to the appropriate IP Hardphone
Answer:B

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NO.5 A customer reports that IP Office users cannot access voicemail at certain times. Avaya has requested
that the customer reproduce the issue and provide traces. Which three steps can the customer take to
reproduce the reported issue? (Choose three.)
A.The customer can place test calls into voicemail.
B.The customer can use the 'IP Office System Monitor" and VoiceMail Pro debug logs to record system
activity.
C.The customer can use System Monitor to "Call Sync" on all calls in the system.
D.The customer can reboot the IP Office to see if it resolves the issue.
E.The customer can record the date and time of the reported issue.
Answer:A B E

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NO.6 Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) options are available in the IP Office?
A.Disabled, Enabled
B.Server, Enabled, Client
C.Server, Disabled, Client, DialIn
D.Server, Client, Disabled
Answer:C

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NO.7 Your customer has an IP Office 412 system running version 4.2 where calls at times ring to wrong
extension numbers. Which three steps would you take to reproduce or validate the issue? (Choose three.)
A.Use System Status Application to watch the call progress to verify which extension the call is ringing to
and why.
B.Use System Monitor and the Call / Packet information to follow the call progress to identify the issue.
C.Use the telephone's display for the extension that is incorrectly ringing to determine how the call was
routed.
D.Use the Call Status application to watch the call progress to verify how the call is being routed and to
what extension it is being directed to.
E.Use the IP Office Manager application to verify that the VoiceMail call flow is configured correctly.
Answer:A B C

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NO.8 When using SIP or H.323 trunks and the System Status Application, which three problems can be
tested using the System Status Application? (Choose three.)
A.round trip delay
B.receive jitter
C.receive packet loss
D.Quality of Service (QoS) value
E.DSCP QoS value
Answer:A B C

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NO.9 An IP Office application will allow an individual to select protocols and interfaces that are to be traced
and decoded. The trace can either be captured directly to screen or as a log file for later analysis. Traces
from different protocols can be color coded to improve the clarity of large log files. Which application is
used for this?
A.Debug View
B.System Monitor
C.Delta Server
D.System Status Application
Answer:B

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NO.10 What is necessary to upgrade the firmware for the 4600/5600 series sets on an IP Office system?
A.Manager
B.serial cable
C.third-party FTP server
D.null modem cable
Answer:A

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NO.11 You have an Avaya IP 412 Office with the largest supported voice compression modules (VCMs) on
the system. What is the maximum number of data channels supported on this system?
A.20
B.50
C.80
D.100
Answer:D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what would the default gateway for IP Office 1 be?
A.10.10.1.1
B.10.10.1.2
C.192.168.10.100
D.135.122.34.90
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which file validates the version of software that is to be loaded into the 4600 Series Telephone set?
A.bbla0_83.scr
B.46xxsettings.txt
C.46xxsettings.scr
D.46xxupgrade.scr
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which three pieces of information does System Status Application provide? (Choose three.)
A.configuration errors
B.local IP Office license status
C.trunk status
D.extension status
E.remote IP Office license statu
Answer:B C D

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NO.15 Which two operating systems are supported by VoiceMail Pro? (Choose two.)
A.Microsoft Windows 2000
B.Microsoft Windows XP
C.Microsoft Windows 98 SE
D.Microsoft Windows NT
Answer:A B

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NO.16 A customer using an IP Office system with a single PRI line is reporting difficulties when dialing out.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two.)
A.There are not sufficient channels available for the number of callers on the system.
B.The PRI clock quality is set to Network instead of Fallback.
C.The PRI clock quality is set to Fallback instead of Network.
D.The internal CSU is enabled.
Answer:A C

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NO.17 An IP Office solution is sold to a customer who needs to connect two existing sites over their LAN.
Which two are required by Avaya to ensure the VoIP connection and calls work properly? (Choose two.)
A.firewall / filter
B.network assessment
C.a separate voice network
D.static addresses for the IP Office
Answer:B D

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NO.18 An IP Office telephone user reports that a phone is not ringing for outside calls. What are three possible
reasons why this is happening? (Choose three.)
A.The IP Office locale is set to "A-Law".
B.The phone does not have the user profile logged onto the phone.
C.The ring volume is too low to hear.
D.The phone has been set to "Offhook Station".
E.The phone is set to "Do Not Disturb".
Answer:B C E

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NO.19 Your customer has a single PRI installed on their IP Office system and they are reporting issues dialing
out. They are getting dead air and dropped calls. Which three can be enabled within the System Monitor
tool to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose three.)
A.ISDN / Events / Layer 1
B.ISDN / Packets / Layer 3 send & receive
C.System / Error
D.Call / Packets / Line Send
E.T1 / Line
Answer:A B C

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NO.20 When configuring Session Initiated Protocol (SIP) trunks with SIP authorization using an IP address on
an IP Office system which option must be set in the SIP Line configuration form for the trunks to function
correctly?
A.The customer's NAT IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
B.The Primary Authentication Name must be set.
C.The compression mode must be set to automatic.
D.The ITSP IP address must be entered on the SIP line form.
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 132-S-815
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam)
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118 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-03-10

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NO.1 .Before beginning to configure and test the port boards in the Avaya Messaging Application Server
(MAS), a user must first obtain the proper configuration note for the particular PBX and integration.
Where can the proper configuration note be found?
A. Help screens
B. Installation Guide
C. MAS documentation CD
D. http:\\support.avaya.com
Answer: D

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NO.2 .What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message
Networking Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A. completed Modular Messaging planning form
B. completed Message Networking planning form
C. Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D. Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade from Modular Messaging pre-3.0 to Modular
Messaging 3.x when the solution uses the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose
three.)
A. using the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup
B. running the Data Collection Tool (DCT) on a Message Application Server (MAS)
C. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS is providing messaging services
D. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS messaging services have been stopped
E. performing a backup of the Message Application Server (MAS) onto the MAS's DVD drive.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 .Before requesting a license for a newly installed Modular Messaging system, which information is
required from the on-site installer?
A. Voice Mail Domain Name
B. Voice Mail Domain Identifier (aka VMD ID or Host ID)
C. IP addresses of all servers in the Voice Mail Domain
D. Local Administration Account names and passwords for all Messaging Application Servers
(MASs)
Answer: B

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NO.5 .In what task will the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) Port Monitor be useful?
A. verifying that the MAS is able to communicate over IP ports to the MSS
B. determining the digits dialed by an outbound call from the MAS's telephony port
C. verifying that a test call arrives on a telephony port of the MAS that you want to test
D. determining whether communication originating from the MAS's IP port employs encryption
Answer: C

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NO.6 .Before going to a customer site to begin installing a Modular Messaging R3.1 system, which three
items should be obtained from support.avaya.com? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration Notes
B. System planning form
C. Outlook Client software
D. Customer account information
E. Supplementary Server software
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 .Which is used to find port statistics in a Modular Messaging (MM) system?
A. Reporting Tool
B. Port Monitor Tool
C. Subscriber Options
D. Operational History Viewer
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Which IP address is acceptable for use on the private network for an installation of Modular
Messaging R3.x with the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)?
A. 10.255.255.255
B. 168.192.1.250
C. 172.31.1.245
D. 183.81.168.1
Answer: C

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NO.9 .Which two options are presented after starting the Data Collection Tool (DCT)? (Choose two.)
A. create a new file
B. analyze existing system
C. deploy new configuration
D. delete current configuration
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to
Release 3.1? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an attended system backup.
B. Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C. Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D. Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E. Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 .In an R3.1 Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in what location can a user
determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet Messaging and Enhanced List
Application Software?
A. Server Information > Server Status
B. Reports > System Evaluation Reports
C. This information is available from several screens.
D. System Control and System Status > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement is true about installing a Modular Messaging with the Message Storage Server
(MSS) into the Corporate Windows Domain?
A. The only step required is to select "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" in the Data Collection
Too (DCT).
B. The MSS TCP/IP networking form must be configured with the appropriate Corporate Windows
Domain values.
C. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" must be selected in the Data Collection Tool (DCT) and
on the Message Storage Server Windows Domain Setup administration form.
D. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" is done manually on the MAS after the configuration
wizard is run, and then done manually on the MSS using the Windows Domain Setup form.
Answer: C

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NO.13 To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice
Mail Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services
be activated?
A. in the first MAS
B. in different MASs
C. on the same MAS
D. in at least two MASs
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Which three line cards are used with Modular Messaging? (Choose three.)
A. H.323
B. Analog
C. DLC-16
D. T1/E1-QSIG
E. Set Emulation
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.15 .Which two statements are true about anti-virus software on Modular Messaging with a Message
Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose two.)
A. The MSS already has its own anti-virus software.
B. Anti-virus software should not be configured to perform scans each time a file is accessed.
C. Once anti-virus software has been installed the Modular Messaging system will update it
automatically.
D. Avaya recommends that the customer install anti-virus software on each Avaya Messaging
Application Server (MAS) and any Supplementary Server.
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 .Which action must be taken on an Message Storage Server (MSS) to implement additional
administrator logins?
A. Buy additional administrator seats from Avaya.
B. Create custom roles to assign to the administrator logins.
C. Set up an Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate the
administrator logins.
D. Configure the administrator account to authenticate locally or via an Authentication,
Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer's system from Modular Messaging
Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage erver (MSS) and the
Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A. Uninstall and re-installRealSpeak software on the MASs
B. Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C. Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D. Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0
system
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 .The customer has an existing Modular Messaging (MM) system with a Message Storage System
(MSS), which was installed with MM release 1.1. They are upgrading to MM 3.0 and adding an
Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) to provide more port capacity. The customer wants to
retain their existing MAS. They have T1 Dialogic boards. They currently have Aria and Audix TUIs
implemented for their subscribers.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. They must upgrade all dialogic boards.
B. They must upgrade all MASs to S3500 servers.
C. They must consider impact of TUIs on port capacity.
D. The new MAS will have only two slots for port boards.
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 .According to Avaya documentation, which step must be taken to connect the cables supplied with
a digital set emulation board to the PBX?
A. Connect the board using the provided RJ-48C (Ethernet) cable.
B. Connect the installed boards to one end of a standard RJ-11 tip/ring cable.
C. Connect the board using the provided PBX station interface D/82JCT-U cable.
D. Connect the male end of the provided CT bus cable to the top of each port board.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements about domain names are true for Modular Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. All domain names must be unique.
B. The Voice Mail Domain (VMD) is identical to the Windows Domain Name.
C. The Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and Voice Mail Domain (VMD) names must be
alphanumeric.
D. The private Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) for the Message Application Server (MAS) is
used only on the private network.
Answer: A,D

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