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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Exam Code: ST0-250
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Exam Code: 250-410
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.x
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NO.1 What are two features of Reporting and Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Gold Standards
B. Standards
C. Entitlements
D. Patch Management
E. Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 A query returns multiple rows with the same machine name. Which method should be used to
narrow the results?
A. remove the Machine Name field
B. reduce the scope
C. set primary sort to a field other than Machine Name
D. set the Sort to Suppress Records with Duplicate Key
Answer: D

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NO.3 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.4 The CCS Manager Service can be configured for which type of data collector?
A. historical data collector
B. evaluation data collector
C. VMware data collector
D. HTTP data collector
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which field is required for manually adding a Windows asset?
A. Machine Name
B. IP Address
C. OS Major/Minor Version
D. Asset Site
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must be done to save customized settings when using the report viewer?
A. copy the customized report
B. save the customized report
C. export the customized report
D. update the customized report
Answer: C

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7. Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature facilitates the monitoring and
approval of access rights in an organization?
A. Evaluations
B. Reports
C. Dashboards
D. Entitlements
Answer: D

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8. Users can copy an Asset Group to which two locations? (Select two.)
A. Asset Group templates
B. Existing Asset group
C. Business Asset view
D. Asset System root folder
E. Assets folder
Answer: D,E

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9. To effectively and consistently manage a relative concept like risk, risk must be defined. How is
the risk modeling process used during this process?
A. to present a consolidated view of assets
B. to collect raw-data based content
C. to identify and define security objectives
D. to assess security compliance status
Answer: C

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10. What are two types of Dashboards? (Select two.)
A. Web-based
B. Static
C. Organizational
D. Tiered
E. Executive
Answer: A,D

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11. A manager at corporate headquarters questions the validity of a compliance report because
the date and time are incorrect. Which is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The Application Server is in a different timezone.
B. The Reporting Database is in a different timezone.
C. The CCS Manager in the Reporting role is in a different timezone.
D. The report was incorrectly configured.
Answer: A

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12. Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 provides a mechanism to tag and identify assets for
report and scope purposes. Tagging is a way to define an asset with which type of information?
A. keyword
B. object
C. meta
D. category
Answer: C

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13. In addition to Report Data Synchronization and Report Generation, what is another
report-related job that can be executed from the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 console?
A. Dashboard Import job
B. Report Data Purge job
C. Report Export job
D. Dashboard Synchronization job
Answer: B

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14. Which two data connectors are used to integrate with third-party applications to import
required data? (Select two.)
A. Standards connector
B. Web Services connector
C. Policy Manager connector
D. CSV data connector
E. Policy Module connector
Answer: B,D

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15. Which two tasks should be completed prior to deploying Symantec Control Compliance Suite
11.0? (Select two.)
A. create Service Principal Names
B. install licenses
C. create certificates
D. install sites
E. create service accounts
Answer: A,E

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16. The risk calculation logic in the Risk Manager module calculates the risk score based on the
evaluation and the assessment data that is collected from checks, questions, and extended tests and
assessment procedures that are available in the reporting database for the corresponding assets.
Which job type does Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 run for Risk Manager to determine
the correct risk score?
A. Report Data Synchronization job
B. Remediation Verification job
C. Collection-Evaluation-Reporting job
D. Global Metrics and Trends Computation job
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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Exam Code: ST0-236
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NO.1 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.3 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.7 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-250
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NO.1 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5?
A. Store backup on local server
B. Store backup on a remote location using FTP
C. Encrypt local backup
D. Purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec
Messaging Gateway 10.5. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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6. After a configurable period of time, a suspect virus is released from the Suspect Virus
Quarantine. What happens to it next?
A. An alert is sent to the email administrator.
B. The attachment is removed and the original message is delivered to the recipient.
C. It is rescanned.
D. It is moved to quarantine.
Answer: C

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7. What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A. Dynamic Data Cache
B. Directory Data Service
C. Active Directory
D. Domain Controller Interface (DCInterface)
Answer: B

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8. If recipient validation is configured properly, which SMTP response level is given to messages
that fail recipient validation queries at connect time?
A. 3xx - Service unavailable
B. 4xx - Temporary delivery failure
C. 5xx - Permanent delivery failure
D. 6xx - Rejected validation failure
Answer: C

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9. How should an administrator stop inbound mail using the command line interface (CLI)?
A. use mta-control
B. use mta-stop
C. use mail-control
D. use mail-stop
Answer: A

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10. Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts
via reports?
A. Spam and Unwanted Mail
B. Submissions
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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11. Which two statistics can the administrator view regarding the custom anti-spam rulesets?
(Select two.)
A. the "top-submitters" of missed spam or false positive detections
B. the "top submitters" of messages that are not valid and did not generate a custom rule
C. how many emails have been submitted for custom antispam rules
D. the effectiveness of the custom antispam rulesets compared to Symantec's rulesets
E. the top senders of messages detected by custon antispam rulesets
Answer: A,C

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12. What two actions can allowed end-users do to submit samples to Symantec and have custom
anti-spam rules created? (Select two.)
A. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client
B. flag messages in their web-based SMG quarantine page as being spam and submitting the results
C. forward spam samples to abuse@symantec.com with a subject of "MISSED SPAM"
D. move the message into the included "Junk E-mail" folder available in Outlook
E. submit a sample to Symantec using the Email Submission Client available for Lotus Domino
Answer: A,B

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13. A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are
recognized by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure the same administrator email address across both control centers
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure both control centers with the same internal email hosts
Answer: A

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14. An organization would like to participate in the Symantec Probe Network without having to
manually create decoy email accounts. The organization wants to make sure that the addresses that
participate in the Symantec Probe Network are currently receiving email. Which directory data
source function should be enabled to help in this situation?
A. recipient validation
B. address resolution
C. SMTP authentication
D. LDAP routing
Answer: A

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15. What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.3 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 will be deployed to receive mail directly from the Internet.
In this situation, which option should be selected within the Inbound Mail Filtering - Accepted Hosts
step of the site setup wizard?
A. Enable MX lookup
B. Define a list of domains
C. Specify IP addresses/domains
D. Select all IP addresses
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which directory data source function must be enabled to help prevent a directory harvest
attack?
A. Active Directory connector
B. Dynamic Data Sourcing
C. LDAP authentication
D. Recipient validation
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does Symantec DLP communicate with Symantec Messaging Gateway (SMG) to indicate
what type of incident (if any) is related to a given message?
A. Symantec DLP uses the ICAP protocol to indicate if a message is clean,or if it violated any defined
policies.
B. Symantec DLP will add information into the message that can be interpreted by SMG and then
send it to SMG via SMTP .
C. Symantec DLP will quarantine messages that violate established policies,blocking it from SMG.
D. Symantec DLP will use TLS to send a notification message to the SMG server for any content
violations.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 A system administrator needs to change the domain to which a computer belongs. What must
the administrator create before creating a task to change a computer's domain?
A. a system configuration
B. an automation configuration
C. a Sysprep imaging configuration
D. an Apply System Configuration task
Answer: A

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NO.2 Microsoft Office has been successfully pushed out as a Quick Delivery task to a group of
systems. When the administrator checks the report of software currently installed on the systems,
the newly delivered software is missing. Why is the installed software missing from the report?
A. The detection rule for Office was configured with an incorrect MSI code.
B. The most recent Software Inventory scan was run before the delivery was completed.
C. SQL Server timed out during the building of the report, causing incomplete report results.
D. The Software Management Solution Agent needs to be installed on the targeted computers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which agent plug-in must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Inventory Rule Agent Plug-in
B. Software Management Framework Agent Plug-in
C. Patch Management Agent Plug-in
D. Software Update Agent Plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two are required for full use of the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Java Runtime Environment
B. Adobe Shockwave
C. Microsoft Silverlight
D. Adobe Air
E. Windows Deployment Services
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Microsoft released several critical and important updates and a system administrator needs to
determine which updates are applicable to the existing environment. Where can the administrator
access additional information about applicable software updates?
A. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis
B. Patch Remediation Center
C. Software Updates Catalog
D. Software Update Management Center
Answer: B

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NO.6 A system administrator created a Software Portal entry that allows any user in the company to
install a specific program. For licensing purposes, the administrator needs to determine which
computers have the software. Which report can be used to track which computers have the software
in question?
A. the Audit Software Search report
B. the Add or Remove Program Search report
C. the Software Compliance Summary report
D. the Installed Software report
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company is planning an In-Place Migration to Windows 7. They use PC Transplant to migrate
the personality. Which option will help reduce the network traffic when restoring the image?
A. use File Preservation
B. use a higher compression
C. use unicast
D. deploy the OS without applications
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which protocol needs to be configured when using Real-Time System Manager to update a
user's password?
A. ASF
B. WMI
C. AMT
D. WS-MAN
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-403
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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.3 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizationalview.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task.?
A. clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. right-click and select the task's properties
C. clone the source folder of the sample
D. clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.6 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a new
hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Symantec Management Platform 7.1 administrator attempts to discover all network resources using
the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network administrator, it is determined that
ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes. Which other protocol can the administrator
use to discover network devices using Network Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-240
Exam Name: Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX
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NO.1 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.7 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 250-251
Exam Name: Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0)
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Exam Code: 250-253
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Exam Code: ST0-91W
Exam Name: Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS)
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NO.1 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: BD

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NO.2 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: CE

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NO.4 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: BE

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NO.5 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.7 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: AE

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NO.8 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which configuration feature of Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 allows the recovery of
a remote machine by removing the requirement for external boot media?
A. Restore Anyware
B. LightsOut Restore
C. Cold Image Restore
D. Symantec pcAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which option must be installed prior to installing Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Symantec Installation Manager
C. Symantec Backup Exec Infrastructure Manager
D. Symantec LiveUpdate
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of backup task for Linux is supported oy Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution?
A. offsite copy
B. recovery point set
C. file and folder backup
D. independent recovery point
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tool is used in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 to control permissions?
A. Permission Configuration tool
B. Rote-Dased Administration tool
C. Security Configuration tool
D. User Access Control tool
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two options must be installed to migrate managed client computers from Symantec Backup
Exec System Recovery Manager 85 (BESR) to Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010
Management Solution? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. BESR plug-in
C. Symantec Installation Manager
D. Symantec ThreatCon
E. BESR Management Console
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also
available in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?
A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk
B. creating a backup every month on a specified day
C. managing backups using a local graphical console
D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator needs to configure the Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Event log
logging level for only the most critical problems.
Which two steps are required to accomplish this? (Select two).
A. set the type of messages to High Priority Messages
B. set the type of messages to All Messages
C. set the type of messages to Medium and High Priority Messages
D. check the Errors check Dox
E. check the Errors and warnings check Dox
F. check me Errors, warnings, and informational check Dox
Answer: A, D

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NO.8 What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery
2010 Management Solution?
A. create resource targets
B. define backup policies
C. install the Alans Agent
D. discover computers on the network
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-079
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Exam Name: ASC Data Protection 2010
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Exam Code: 250-370
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows
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NO.1 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.5 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.6 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-12X
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NO.1 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.2 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
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NO.5 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.6 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.7 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
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A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 251-250
Exam Name: Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX
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NO.1 Which attributes impact service group failover? (Choose three.)
A.FailOver
B.AutoFailOver
C.Faulted
D.FaultPropagation
E.Frozen
Answer:B D E

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NO.2 Which procedure must be followed to remove the resource type TypeA from an active VCS cluster?
A.remove all resources of TypeA, remove TypeA, and remove TypeA packages
B.remove TypeA, then execute the hatype esync command
C.stop VCS, remove all resources of TypeA, and start VCS
D.execute the hatype -remove command which will remove all the resources
Answer:A

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NO.3 What is the default level of authorization of a new VCS user?
A.Cluster Administrator
B.Cluster Operator
C.Cluster Guest
D.Group Administrator
E.Group Operator
Answer:C

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NO.4 When preparing to install VCS on the S1 and S2 systems, what should you do to verify software
compatibility? (Choose three.)
A.check the VCS release notes for supported software
B.run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command
C.let the installvcs script check compatibility at install
D.run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command
E.check the Symantec Enterprise Support website
Answer:A B E

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NO.5 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.AutoStart
B.ConfInterval
C.ConfTimeout
D.MonitorInterval
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B D

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NO.6 You are adding a system to a running cluster. You have successfully performed these steps on the
system that you are adding: 1. installed, configured, and tested all application resources required 2.
installed VCS 3. configured and started VCS communications (LLT and GAB) What is the next step that
you perform?
A.update the resource attributes to enable resources to run on the new system
B.update the service group attributes to enable groups to run on the new system
C.change the cluster attribute for VCS user names to match accounts on the new system
D.change the owner of the system attributes so that all cluster systems are the same
Answer:B

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NO.7 You are installing a VCS upgrade that does not require a system reboot, but does require a VCS
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A.use the VCS rolling upgrade option which restarts VCS transparently
B.stop VCS using the orce option and then restart VCS on each system
C.evacuate service groups while upgrading one system at a time
D.stop VCS using the all option and then restart VCS on each system
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A.Flags
B.RestartLimit
C.ToleranceLimit
D.OfflineTimeout
E.OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer:B C

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange
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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows
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Exam Name: Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS)
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NO.1 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers.
How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users' Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C

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NO.7 An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line "AllowDelete=1" to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck "Prevent deletion of archived items in this category" from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check "Users can delete items from their Archives" in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE

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NO.8 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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