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Exam Code: 3I0-013
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NO.1 What is the "spread" in an interest rate swap (IRS)?
A. The interest rate differential between the fixed and floating leg of the swap
B. The brokerage fee for an interest rate swap transaction
C. The payment made when a swap is terminated
D. The difference between the swap rate and the benchmark government yield
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the primary responsibility of an Operations Department?
A. Writing the deal ticket
B. Arranging the delivery of currency payments
C. Checking the availability of counterparty limits
D. Agreeing on the FX rate with the counterparty's middle office
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which kind of report is a reconciliation system unable to produce?
A. A"probable matched items report"(a report in which most fields match but there are some
discrepancies)
B. A"calculated fees report"(a report of the expected fees owed)
C. A"matched items report"(a report of all fields that match)
D. An"unmatched items report"(a report of items for which one is unable to find matches)
Answer: B

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NO.4 A forward rate agreement (FRA) is:
A. A future rate agreement involving two different currencies
B. An interest rate agreement where buyer and seller will exchange an interest rate differential at a
given date in the future
C. An interest rate to be applied to a loan or deposit that begins and matures in the future
D. An agreement to exchange cash flows starting on a specific date in the future
Answer: A

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NO.5 Herstatt Risk is also known as:
A. Settlement risk
B. Translation risk
C. Replacement risk
D. Operational risk
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does ISDA stand for?
A. International Swaps and Derivatives Association
B. Integrated System Data Association
C. International Swap Derivatives Agreement
D. International Swaps Dealer Association
Answer: A

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NO.7 In error, your dealer enters a trade whereby he buys GBP 8,000,000.00 against USD at 1.5500,
but manages to cover it at the same rate. When the initial mistaken trade is cancelled, however, the
rate has since changed to 1.5200. What is the effect on P&L?
A. Profit GBP 240,000.00
B. Loss GBP 240,000.00
C. Profit USD 240,000.00
D. Loss USD 240,000.00
Answer: B

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NO.8 If you had bought USD/CNY at 6.2500 in a NDF and if it fixed at a spot rate of 6.3000, you
would expect to:
A. Pay a cash settlement in USD
B. Pay a cash settlement in CNY
C. Receive a cash settlement in USD
D. Receive a cash settlement in CNY
Answer: B

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NO.1 The Create New Folder link will only be visible to users with which permission
A. Manage Public Documents
B. Manage Documents
C. Edit Documents
D. Create Public Documents
Answer: A

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NO.2 What can a user do an account record that has been manually shared read/write with him/her?
(Select 2)
A. View the account
B. Edit the account
C. Transfer the account
D. Delete the account
E. Share it to other users
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 When using Territory Management, can an opportunity be associated with multiple territories?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Accounts and Users can be associated with multiple opportunities but Opportunities can only be in
one territory.

NO.4 A sales team is a set of users that normally work together on _________ ?
A. Accounts
B. Leads
C. Opportunities
D. Contacts
E. Cases
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Director of Sales wants a report that meets the following criteria:
All accounts in NY, MA, PA and NJ Account rating of "Hot" or Annual Rev over $8M .The report must
meet the state criteria but can optionally meet the account rating or the annual revenue.
Which report format would you use to create this custom report?
A. The Tabular Report
B. The Summary Report
C. Matrix Report.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When configuring Customizable Forecasting, you can set which of the following Forecast Dates
for determining which opportunities contribute to the forecast?
A. Opportunity Close Date Only
B. Product Date Only
C. Schedule Date Only
D. Commit Date
E. Opportunity Close Date, Product Date, Schedule Date
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following can NOT be edited on the Page Layout Editor?
A. Field positions
B. Buttons
C. Page sections
D. Related lists
E. Picklist values
Answer: E

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NO.8 Organization-Wide Default Sharing Rule for Calendar Access Default is as Follows:
A. Hide Details
B. Hide Details and Add Events
C. Show Details
D. Show Details and Add Events
Answer: B

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NO.1 A timer that sends an AJAX update request to the server according to a time interval that you
specify. The update request can then result in a full or partial page update. You should avoid using
this component with enhanced lists.
A. apex:dataList
B. apex:actionPoller
C. apex:inlineEditSupport
D. apex:image
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you use a standard controller on a page and the user doesn't have access to the object, the
page will...
A. Throw an ACCESS_VIOLATION exception.
B. Write an ACCESS_VIOLATION message to the debug log.
C. Display an insufficient privileges error message.
D. Redirect the user to their home page.
E. Ask the user if they would like to upgrade permissions in order to view the object.
F. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.3 What trigger method is used to correlate IDI-to-sObject maps? (No Answer)
A. Trigger.newMap, Trigger.oldMap
B. Internal and external
C. Trigger.new
D. Queues, time triggers
Answer: A

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NO.4 Developers can use Visualforce to create a Visualforce page definition. A page definition
consists of two primary elements:
- Visualforce markup
- A Visualforce controller
Visualforce markup consists of...(Select all that apply)
A. Any Web-enabled code
B. Visualforce Tags
C. Apex code
D. HTML
E. JavaScript
F. C# Remoting Modules
G. None of the above
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.5 What are the stages of an application development process? (No Answer)
A. Declaratively, programmatically
B. Primitive, sObject, Collections, Null
C. Develop, integrate, stage, production/training
D. Manual sharing, apex sharing
Answer: C

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NO.6 A component that adds AJAX support to another component, allowing the component to be
refreshed asynchronously by the server when a particular event occurs, such as a button click or
mouseover.
See also: <apex:actionFunction>.
A. apex:form
B. apex:attribute
C. apex:page
D. apex:actionSupport
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which trigger context variable allows you to modify field values before they are written to the
database in the before trigger? (No Answer)
A. Trigger.new
B. Trigger.old
C. @ReadOnly
D. TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.8 What two methods of customization are available to create applications in salesforce?
A. Declarative, programmatic
B. Dates, Ids, Numbers
C. Database class method
D. Agovernor limit
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HAAD Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses
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NO.1 A patient who has just had a miscarriage at 8 weeks of gestation is admitted to hospital. In
caring for this patient, the nurse should be alert for signs of:
A. Dehydration
B. Subinvolution
C. Hemorrhage
D. Hypertension
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following techniques should the nurse implement to prevent the patient's
mucous membranes from drying when the oxygen flow rate is higher than 4 liters per minute?
A. Use a non rebreather mask
B. Add humidity to the delivery system
C. Use a high flow oxygen delivery system
D. Ensure that the prongs are in the nares correctly
Answer: B

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NO.3 A newborn is diagnosed with ventricular septal defect. The baby is discharged with a
prescription for digoxin syrup 20 micrograms bid. The bottle of digoxin is labeled as 0.05 mg/ml. The
nurse should teach the mother to administer on each dose:
A. 0.1 ml
B. 0.2 ml
C. 0.4 ml
D. 0.8 ml
Answer: C

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NO.4 To remove soft contact lenses from the eyes of an unconscious patient the nurse should:
A. Uses a small suction cup placed on the lenses
B. Pinches the lens off the eye then slides it off the cornea
C. Lifts the lenses with a dry cotton ball that adheres to the lenses
D. Tenses the lateral canthus while stimulating a blink reflex by the patient
Answer: B

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NO.5 Whilst recovering from surgery a patient develops deep vein thrombosis. The sign that would
indicate this complication to the nurse would be:
A. Intermittent claudication
B. Pitting edema of the area
C. Severe pain when raising the legs
D. Localized warmth and tenderness of the site
Answer: D

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NO.6 A patient is to receive 2.5mg of morphine sulfate. The ampoule contains l000mcg/mL. How
much morphine should the nurse administer?
A. 0.25 ml
B. 1 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2.5 ml
Answer: D

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NO.7 A patient with duodenal peptic ulcer would describe his pain as:
A. Generalized burning sensation
B. Intermittent colicky pain
C. Gnawing sensation relieved by food
D. Colicky pain intensified by food
Answer: C

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NO.8 A patient undergoes laminectomy. In the immediate post-operative period, the nurse shoulD.
A. Monitor the patient's vital signs and log roll him to prone position
B. Monitor the patient's vital signs and encourage him to ambulate
C. Monitor the patient's vital signs and auscultate his bowel sounds
D. Monitor the patient's vital signs, check sensation and motor power of the feet
Answer: D

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NO.1 The primary concern in a program results audit is a determination that
A. Financial statements are presented in accordance with International Financial Reporting
Standards.
B. Desired benefits are being achieved.
C. The entity has complied with laws and regulations.
D. Resources are managed economically and efficiently.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The control self-assessment (CSA) is a
A. Directive auditing tool.
B. Preventive auditing tool.
C. Detective auditing tool.
D. Corrective auditing tool.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Reporting to senior management and the board is an important part of the auditor's
obligation.
Which of the following items is not required to be reported to senior management and/or the board?
A. Subsequent to the completion of an audit, but prior to the issuance of an audit report, the audit
senior in charge of the audit was offered a permanent position in the auditee's department.
B. An annual report summary of the department's audit work schedule and financial budget.
C. Significant interim changes to the approved audit work schedule and financial budget.
D. An audit plan was approved by senior management and the board. Subsequent to the approval,
senior management informed the audit director not to perform an audit of a division because the
division's activities were very sensitive.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How does CSA differ from traditional methods of auditing?
A. Shifts some of the responsibilities away from the auditors towards others such as work teams.
B. Allocated additional responsibilities to internal audit.
C. Reduces the level of collaboration required between managers and internal auditor.
D. Allows assessment to be carried out without any internal audit involvement whatsoever,
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Answer: A

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NO.5 During the audit of inventories, an internal auditor specified a precision of 5% instead of the
4% contained in the preliminary audit program.
What would be the impact of the change in precision?
A. A decrease in population standard deviation.
B. An increase in population standard deviation.
C. A decrease in required sample size
D. An increase in required sample size
Answer: C

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NO.6 Audits vary in their degree of objectivity. Of the following, which is likely to be the most
objective?
A. Compliance audit of company's overtime policy.
B. Operational audit of the personnel function hiring and firing procedures.
C. Performance audit of the marketing department.
D. Financial control audit over payroll procedures.
Answer: A

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NO.7 To test compliance with a policy regarding sales returns recorded during the most recent year,
an auditor systematically selected 5% of the actual returns recorded in March and April. Returns
during these two busiest months of the year represented about 25% of total annual returns.
Error projections from this sample have limited usefulness because
A. The small size of the sample relative to the population makes sampling risk unacceptable.
B. The failure to stratify the population according to sales volume results in bias.
C. The systematic selection of returns during the two months is not sufficiently random.
D. The error rates during the two busiest months may not be representative of the whole year.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The requirements for staffing level, education and training, and audit research should be
included in
A. The internal auditing department's charter.
B. The internal auditing department's policies and procedures manual.
C. The annual plan for the internal auditing department.
D. Job descriptions for the various staff positions.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is a Business Object?
A. An Instance of a Type
B. A schema Policy
C. A file in a Store
D. An Object created by the business modeler
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Navigation window within CATIA V6 is used to do what?
A. Browse and filter the necessary 3D data
B. Make design changes to the 3D data
C. Create Engineering constraints between parts
D. Make positional updates on the 3D data
Answer: A

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NO.3 To view and use the annotation (drawing) tools of the Head-Up Display window, you must do
what?
A. Use the View > Toolbar command
B. Expand the Snapshot icon
C. Switch to the Navigation window
D. Switch to the Examine window
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a Filter type?
A. Configuration
B. Properties
C. Attributes
D. Volume
Answer: B

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7. If you wanted a report on "How do summer and holiday vacations impact the number of Parts
that are released?" or "How did the reduction-in-force impact the number of ECRs that are
completed monthly?". What report would you run?
A. The Object Count In State Over Time Report
B. The Object Count Over Time Report
C. Object Count Report
D. Lifecycle Duration Report Over Time
Answer: A

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8. The Bar Search is case sensitive.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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9. The image displayed below is a User Interface element in 3DLive, which is called what?
A. the Standard toolbar
B. the Compass
C. the Lifecycle toolbar
D. the Bar
Answer: D

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10. Which of the following is NOT of the three value propositions of the 3DExperience Platform?
A. Reduce Time to Market
B. Reduce Total Cost of Ownership
C. Reduce Number of Engineering Changes
D. Increase Operational Efficiency
Answer: C

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NO.5 A released CATIA V6 Part needs to undergo a change that alters the form, fit and function.
Which is the right option?
A. Minor Versions
B. Iterations
C. Major Version
D. Duplicate
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is a workspace?
A. It is your private area to manage your documents
B. It is a logical area for a team to collaborate on a business need
C. It is an area to store all your checked in files
D. It is your area for you to perform all your mail activities
Answer: B

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NO.1 You create a set of test cases for a complex requirement.
The test cases should be listed in a specific order.
You need to configure a test suite and define the order of the test cases.
Which type of test suite should you configure?
A. Query-based
B. Static
C. Requirements-based
D. Order-based
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are developing release plans for a new software development project.
You need to document a flexibility matrix.
Which three elements should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. schedule
B. risk mitigation
C. scope
D. cost or resources
E. decision-making authority
F. solution architecture
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
http://pm-lotus.com/Wordpress/2009/09/15/the-flexibility-matrix/

NO.3 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS)
2012 server.
You need to be able to trace bugs to the code that addresses the bug.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Work Items check-in policy. In the Edit options of the policy, select Bug from the list of
work item types.
B. Enable the Work Items check-in policy. In the Edit options of the policy, select the Active Bugs
query.
C. Enable the Work Items check-in policy and request that all developers associate the work item to
the appropriate bug at the time of check-in.
D. Enable the Changeset Comments check-in policy.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are the lead software developer for your company. You are using Microsoft Visual
Studio 2012 and Test Driven Development to create a new commercial software product.
Management asks you to define unit testing standards that all developers will follow.
You need to design the first unit test for a new class.
What should you design the first unit test to do initially?
A. test a range of values
B. test exceptional cases
C. pass the base case
D. fail the base case
Answer: D

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Explanation:
You create the first test to fail the base case. Then based on the results of the failure, you implement
the code to achieve a pass.
Ref: http://blog.cellenza.com/alm-2/visual-studio/tutorial-test-driven-development-withvisual-
studio-2012/

NO.5 You are using Microsoft Test Manager (MTM).
Your company no longer supports a particular configuration for the application under test.
You need to ensure that the test configuration is unavailable as an option in a test plan.
Which state should you assign to the test configuration?
A. Closed
B. Inactive
C. Disabled
D. Idle
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are using Microsoft Test Manager (MTM) to review the work items assigned to two of your
team members.
You need to run a query from the Queries activity and compare the results to a second query without
going to a second workstation.
What should you do?
A. Click the New query option to open a second Queries activity.
B. Click the Queries view to open a second Queries view, and compare the results of the two queries.
C. Click New and create a new task from the drop-down menu.
D. Launch another instance of MTM and execute a second query.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS)
2012 server.
You have two teams named Team A and Team B working on a team project.
You assign work items to a team area for each team. Each person belongs to only one team.
You need to provide read-only access to work items in the Team A area node to Team B by using the
least number of permissions changes.
What should you do?
A. Set the View Work Items in This Node permission to allow Team B to access the Team A node.
B. Set the Edit Work Items in This Node permission for Team B as Deny for the Team A node.
C. Set the Edit Work Items in this Node permission for Team B as Deny to the Team A node and each
child of the Team A node.
D. Set the View Work Items in This Node permission to allow Team B to access the Team A team node
and each child node.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are a QA tester on a development team. You are responsible for a large number of test
cases on your current project.
You need to bulk edit test steps in a large group of test cases.
Which tool should you use?
A. Web Test case Management
B. Microsoft Excel
C. Microsoft Visual Studio
D. Microsoft Test Manager
Answer: A

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Explanation:
What's new in testing the application in Visual Studio 2013