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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-410
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.x
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NO.1 What are two features of Reporting and Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Gold Standards
B. Standards
C. Entitlements
D. Patch Management
E. Enterprise Security Manager
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 A query returns multiple rows with the same machine name. Which method should be used to
narrow the results?
A. remove the Machine Name field
B. reduce the scope
C. set primary sort to a field other than Machine Name
D. set the Sort to Suppress Records with Duplicate Key
Answer: D

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NO.3 Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 Risk Manager provides which functionality?
A. configuration assessment of IT assets
B. evaluation of procedural controls by providing automated web-based questionnaires
C. simplification of the policy management life cycle
D. a view of IT risk related to a business asset such as a business process, group, or function
Answer: D

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NO.4 The CCS Manager Service can be configured for which type of data collector?
A. historical data collector
B. evaluation data collector
C. VMware data collector
D. HTTP data collector
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which field is required for manually adding a Windows asset?
A. Machine Name
B. IP Address
C. OS Major/Minor Version
D. Asset Site
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must be done to save customized settings when using the report viewer?
A. copy the customized report
B. save the customized report
C. export the customized report
D. update the customized report
Answer: C

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7. Which Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 feature facilitates the monitoring and
approval of access rights in an organization?
A. Evaluations
B. Reports
C. Dashboards
D. Entitlements
Answer: D

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8. Users can copy an Asset Group to which two locations? (Select two.)
A. Asset Group templates
B. Existing Asset group
C. Business Asset view
D. Asset System root folder
E. Assets folder
Answer: D,E

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9. To effectively and consistently manage a relative concept like risk, risk must be defined. How is
the risk modeling process used during this process?
A. to present a consolidated view of assets
B. to collect raw-data based content
C. to identify and define security objectives
D. to assess security compliance status
Answer: C

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10. What are two types of Dashboards? (Select two.)
A. Web-based
B. Static
C. Organizational
D. Tiered
E. Executive
Answer: A,D

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11. A manager at corporate headquarters questions the validity of a compliance report because
the date and time are incorrect. Which is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The Application Server is in a different timezone.
B. The Reporting Database is in a different timezone.
C. The CCS Manager in the Reporting role is in a different timezone.
D. The report was incorrectly configured.
Answer: A

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12. Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 provides a mechanism to tag and identify assets for
report and scope purposes. Tagging is a way to define an asset with which type of information?
A. keyword
B. object
C. meta
D. category
Answer: C

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13. In addition to Report Data Synchronization and Report Generation, what is another
report-related job that can be executed from the Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 console?
A. Dashboard Import job
B. Report Data Purge job
C. Report Export job
D. Dashboard Synchronization job
Answer: B

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14. Which two data connectors are used to integrate with third-party applications to import
required data? (Select two.)
A. Standards connector
B. Web Services connector
C. Policy Manager connector
D. CSV data connector
E. Policy Module connector
Answer: B,D

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15. Which two tasks should be completed prior to deploying Symantec Control Compliance Suite
11.0? (Select two.)
A. create Service Principal Names
B. install licenses
C. create certificates
D. install sites
E. create service accounts
Answer: A,E

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16. The risk calculation logic in the Risk Manager module calculates the risk score based on the
evaluation and the assessment data that is collected from checks, questions, and extended tests and
assessment procedures that are available in the reporting database for the corresponding assets.
Which job type does Symantec Control Compliance Suite 11.0 run for Risk Manager to determine
the correct risk score?
A. Report Data Synchronization job
B. Remediation Verification job
C. Collection-Evaluation-Reporting job
D. Global Metrics and Trends Computation job
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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Exam Code: ST0-236
Exam Name: Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.3 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.7 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Oracle Data Integrator 11g Certified Implementation Essentials
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NO.1 Which two software packages are prerequisites for enabling the configuration and use of a
Network information Service (Nis) client?
A. nis-tools
B. slapi-nis
C. ypbind
D. nisserv
E. nisbind
F. yp-tools
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
C: ypbind finds the server for NIS domains and maintains the NIS binding information. The client
(normaly the NIS routines in the standard C library) could get the information over RPC from ypbind
or read the binding files.
E: Setting up a NIS master server:
Required packages: yp-tools ypbind ypserv portmap

NO.2 You want to display the value of a shell variable called service after assigning a value as
shown:
SERVICE =ACCT S
Which two settings will display the name of the variable and its value?
A. set | grep service
B. echo $SERVICE
C. env | grep SERVICE
D. env $SERVICE
E. set $SERVICE
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
C: env - set the environment for command invocation
If no utility operand is specified, the resulting environment shall be written to the standard output,
with one name= value pair per line.

NO.3 Which statements is true concerning Oracle Linux configuration files for users and groups?
A. The /etc/passwd file contains hashed passwords for each user.
B. The /etc/shadow file contains hashed passwords for each user.
C. The GECOS field in /etc/passwd file may be empty.
D. The /etc/group file contains the group name and the hashed group password.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
/etc/shadow file stores actual password in encrypted (one-way hashed) format for user's account
with additional properties related to user password i.e. it stores secure user account information

NO.4 Examine these statements and their output taken right after successful install of Oracle Linux:
[root@FAROUT /] rpm -q firstboot
Firstboot -1.110.10-1.0.2.e16.x86_64
[root @FAROUT /] # chkconfig - - list firstboot
Firstboot 0:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6;off
[root@FAROUT /] # /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
RUN_FIRSTBOOT=NO
What is the conclusion?
A. The option to run firstboot was deselected during Oracle Linux installation.
B. The system was installed with desktop graphical packages and rebooted and the firstboot utility
ran successful.
C. Firstboot never ran in any run level because the service is turned off for all run levels.
D. The system was installed without selecting desktop graphical packages, thereby disabling
firstboot from running.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Firstboot is set to off for all levels.
Example:
The rm command below remove or delate the firstboot file in order to make sure the firstboot
program running when we restart or reboot the Fedora machine.
[root@fedora ~]# rm /etc/sysconfig/firstboot
rm: remove regular file `/etc/sysconfig/firstboot'? y
[root@fedora ~]#
Then check and make sure that firstboot program or firstboot service is run when your Fedora
startup/boot up.
Check firstboot services
[root@fedora ~]# chkconfig --list firstboot
firstboot 0:off 1:off 2:off 3:off 4:off 5:off 6:off
[root@fedora ~]#

NO.5 Examine the command on its output:
[root@FAROUT ~] # modprobe -v nfs
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/nfs_common/nfs_acl.ko insmod
/lob/modules/ 2.6.39
100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/net/sunrpc/auth_gss/auth_rpcgss.ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/fscache/fscache/ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/locked.ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/nfs/nfs.ko
Which two statements are true about the modprobe command?
A. It will load the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have been loaded.
B. It displays the dependency resolution for the nfs module and loads all the modules upon which
nfs depends before loading the nfs module.
C. It verifies that the nfs module and all other modules that depend on the nfs module are installed.
D. It displays the dependency resolution that would occur if the nfs module were to be loaded using
modprobe nfs.
E. It only loads the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have not been loaded yet.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://redhat.activeventure.com/ 8 /customizationguide/ch-kernel-modules.html (kernel
module utilities)

NO.6 Which two statements are true concerning the installation and configuration of the
bootloader by the Anaconda installer, which is then used to boot Oracle Linux?
A. The Linux Loader (LILO) bootloader may be chosen for installation.
B. The bootloader must be password protected and Anaconda prompts for a password in all cases.
C. The Grand Unified Bootloader (GRUB) is the only bootloader used by Oracle Linux.
D. If previously installed operating systems are found on disk partitions that were not overwritten,
then an attempt is made to configure the bootloader to be able to boot them.
E. The bootloader is installed by default in the first partition of the disk.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
A (not C): Linux boot process from hard drive:
1.PC initializion phase - BIOS, POST.
2.PC starts boot loader - usually grub or lilo.
3.The bootloader locates kernel image on the hard drive.
4.The kernel decompresses and loads itself. Once finished it tries to mount the root filesystem. 5.
When the root filesystem is mounted, /sbin/init is executed and continues booting the system using
inittab and /etc/rc*.d scripts

NO.7 This MDADM output:
Which two aspects can be determined from this output?
A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.
B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.
C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.
E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 What is the main advantage of the Oracle Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel compared with the
Red Hat compatible kernel?
A. It is more secure and, therefore, more difficult to hack.
B. It has a lower Mean Time Between Failures.
C. It provides higher availability for applications by reducing Mean Time to Recovery.
D. It scales better for more CPUS, memory, and Infiniband network connections.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel, for those who want to leverage the latest
features from
mainline Linux and boost performance and scalability.
The Red Hat Compatible Kernel, for those who prefer strict Red Hat kernel ABI (kABI)
compatibility.

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NO.1 Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical
database structures?
A. A segment cannot span data files.
B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
Answer: B,C

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Reference: https://mohibalvi.wordpress.com/tag/alter-tablespace/

NO.2 Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?
A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments,
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.
Answer: B,D

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e40540/logical.htm#CNCPT250

NO.3 Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager
plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length, Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits,
cpu_wait_time FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS CPU_WAIT_TIME
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467 6709 OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089 60425 SYS_GROUP 1
02420704 914 19540 DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004 55700
Which two statements are true?
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but
the session will be queued.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the
following specifications:
-Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
-The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
-The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at
night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?
A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic
Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracledistilled.com/oracle-database/administration/creating-a-databaseusing-database
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NO.5 Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
undo_management string AUTO undo_retentioninteger 12 00 undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of
space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the
undo before that time has elapsed.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Answer: A,B

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14211 /optimops.htm

NO.7 Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
Answer: D

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01 /server.102 /b14220/process.htm (see log writer
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NO.8 The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table: ERROR at line
1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management
(ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?
A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the
HR user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a
nonzero value
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of theORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is controlled by the row archival visibility session
parameter.
B. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the database based on activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You issue the command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE;
Which statement is true about the command?
A. It creates a copy of the control file and stores it in the location specifiedin the diagnostic_dest
initialization parameter.
B. It creates a file that contains the SQL statement, which is required to re-create the control file.
C. It updates the alert log file with the location and contents of the control file.
D. It creates a binary backup of the control file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Answer: A,D,E

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76993/recoscen.htm

NO.4 Which statement is true about the loss or damage of a temp file that belongs to the temporary
tablespace of a pluggable database (PDB)?
A. The PDB is closed and the temp file is re-created automatically when the PDB is opened.
B. The PDB is closed and requires media recovery at the PDB level.
C. The PDB does not close and the temp file is re-created automatically whenever the container
database (CDB) is opened.
D. The PDB does not close and starts by using the default temporary tablespace defined for the CD
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your database is running in archivelog mode. Examine the parameters for your database
instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_l ='LOCATION=/disk1/arch MANDATORY' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2
='LOCATION=/disk2/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_3 ='LOCATIO=/disk3/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_4
='LOCATIONs/disk4/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_MIN_SUCCEED_DEST=2
While the database is open, you notice that the destination set by the log_archive_dest_1 parameter
is not available. All redo log groups have been used.
What happens at the next log switch?
A. The database instance hangs and the redo log files are not overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are written to the fast recovery area until the mandatory destination is
made available.
C. The database instance is shutdown immediately.
D. The destination set by the log_archive_destparameter is ignored and the archived redo log files
are created in the next two available locations to guarantee archive log success.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for
Unicode (DMU)?
A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMUcan report columns that are too long in the converted characterset
E. The DMUcan report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset
Answer: A,D,E

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A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or
conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target
character set is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither
length limit issues nor invalid representation issues have been found.

NO.7 RMAN is connected to the target database prod1 and an auxiliary instance in nomount state.
Examine the command to create a duplicate database:
RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dup1
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
NOFILENAMECHECK
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE;
Which two statements are true about the execution of the duplicate command?
A. All archive redo log files are automatically copied to the duplicate database.
B. The duplicate database has the same directory structure as the source database.
C. The duplicate database is created by using the backups created during the execution of
D. the duplicate command.
E. The password file and SPFILE for the duplicate database dup1 are created in their respective
default locations.
F. The duplicate database is created without using RMAN backups and prod: is allowed to remain
open during duplication.
Answer: A,F

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NO.8 You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring,
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
* In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem.
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in
the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to
the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to
compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total
of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

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D. CSO
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C. provides a self-service portal in order to deliver services from multiple providers
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virtual IT infrastructure
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What is the best way to respond to this objection?
A. Is there anyone else in the organization that is able to make that type of buying decision?
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C. We can help you offset that cost by reducing head-count
D. We can reduce your OPEX by making your IT staff more efficient in managing routine day-to-day
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B. reduces downtime and mean time to repair (MTTR) through root-cause analysis that maintains
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C. prevents unauthorized security breaches of environments hosting back-end databases
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Answer: A

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NO.7 Which specific challenge is faced by operations personnel and solved by the HP Software
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C. no system to track storage utilization at array, switch, volume, and application level
D. need to fix vulnerabilities on network devices using an integrated security alert service
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Task Automation challenges are faced by operations personnel and solved by HP Server
Automation Premium Edition? (Select two.)
A. How can I improve time-to-value in the provisioning of application development environments?
B. How can I pre-empt problems before they cause an outage?
C. How do I guarantee my service desk tickets are prioritized?
D. How can I distribute security updates (patches) in my environment in an agile and reliable
manner?
E. How can I better monitor security breaches?
Answer: A,D

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