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Exam Code: M2050-242
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NO.1 A company's new approach to selling requires extensive resource planning. A team of process
analysts has been assembled to perform this work. Which option is sufficient to enforce consistent
simu-lations behavior across the team? All analysts:
A. set the same random number seed and process availability start and end dates in the simula-tion
profiles.
B. set the same random number seed, process availability start and end dates, and maximum simula-tion
duration in the simula-tion profiles.
C. set unique random number seed, process availability start and end dates, maximum simula-tion
duration and maximum number of process invocations in the simula-tion profiles.
D. set unique random number seeds and process availability start and end dates in the simula-tion
profiles.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A process analyst has performed simu-lation upon a business process and is analyzing resource
allocation within the process. The average elapsed duration for the process is 2 hours, 57 minutes. After
running the Process Resource Dynamic Analysis Report, it is observed that the Field Tech Resource has
an average Quantity Allocated value of .6 units. The Process Resource Allocation Dynamic Analysis
Report is also generated against the simu-lation results, and it is determined that there is an Average
Shortage Duration of 37 minutes, 30 seconds for the resource. The process analyst also observes that
the Field Tech Resource has been defined to the process as a bulk resource with an availability value of 3.
Based on this information, what conclusions can the process analyst draw?
A. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource. The
pool of available Field Tech Resources can be reduced to 1 to eliminate resources that are never
allocated to the process. This will not affect the Average Shortage Duration value.
B. There are too many Field Tech Resources available to the process, as the sum of all Field Tech
Resource allocations to activities in the process divided by the total number of process instances is less
than one. This indicates that some Field Tech Resources are never allocated the business process.
C. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource,
however there are also multiple concurrent process instances that are allocating the resource
concurrently and are competing for the resource. The pool of available Field Tech Resources can be
increased to reduce the Average Shortage Duration and the Average Quantity Allocated would increase to
a value close to 1.0 units.
D. There is at least one case in the business process that does not allocate the Field Tech Resource,
however there are also multiple concurrent process instances that are allocating the resource
concurrently and are competing for the resource. The pool of available Field Tech Resources can be
increased to reduce the Average Shortage Duration and the Average Quantity Allocated would remain the
same in subsequent simula-tions.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A process analyst is simulating a process and the results indicate excessive wait times at some of the
activities. Which static analysis report would be useful in determining the cause of the excessive wait
times?
A. Activities by organization
B. Activity cost and duration
C. Activity resource and role leveling
D. Qualified resources for role
Answer: C

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NO.4 A model is going to be simu-lated to capture results that represent as close to real conditions as
possible. What simu-lation setting should be used to ensure that the results reflect the random nature of
the process? The random number seed needs to be set to:
A. Zero
B. 1
C. 2
D. N
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
A process analyst needs to simulate the behavior of the whole business process. How should the
simula-tion profile be set to accomplish this requirement?
A. Set the simula-tion to Evaluate all sub processes.
B. Set the Maximum number of process invocation to 10.
C. Set the simula-tion to Use resource time required as a task processing time.
D. Set the date of the Process availability ends greater than the Process availability begins.
Answer: A

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NO.6 During an exception period, a resource could not complete a task before the end of the task's
processing time. What should be done to ensure that the resource remains allocated until the task is
completed?
A. Check "Use resources time required as a task processing time".
B. Check the preference "Run simula-tion without resource requirements".
C. Increase the "Task duration" to match the resource required time.
D. Set the task's "Resource wait time" to be the resource shortage time.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When is it applicable to use a query?
A. To extract and view information about the elements of models.
B. To extract, view and print information about the elements of models.
C. To extract and view information about model elements and simula-tion results.
D. To extract, view, and print information about model elements and simula-tion results.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which steps would a process analyst take when conducting a simu-lation of "what-if" scenarios for a
business process instance?
A. Make a copy of the simula-tion snapshot, rename it, change the attributes for the "what-if" scenario and
re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results
B. Make a copy of the simula-tion profile, rename it, change the simula-tion attributes for the "what-if"
scenario and re-run the simula-tion and analyze the results.
C. Right click on the simula-tion profile, select Profile Analysis > New Profile and change the attributes for
the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results
D. Right click on the simula-tion snapshot, select Profile Analysis > Profile Specification, and change the
attributes for the "what-if" scenario and then re-run the simula-tion and analyze results.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer has an escalation that requires notifications to go to both Marie Smith and her supervisor
Lee Tsumi. How can both users be included as recipients on a communication template?
A. Create a role for both Marie and Lee
B. Create a Person Group with Marie as the primary
C. Add both e-mail addresses on the Recipients tab
D. Include both user e-mails in the Recipient field separated by a colon
Answer: C

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NO.2 In the Receiving application, what does the Quantity Accepted field indicate?
A. The quantity of items that passed inspection
B. The quantity of items accepted for inspection
C. The quantity of items that received inspection
D. The quantity of items that are awaiting inspection
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has deployed IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 (Maximo) to manage the company
assets and the purchasing process. The company's purchasing process does not require an approved
purchase request (PR) in order to generate a new purchase order (PO) but the buyer reported this
problem when trying to create a new PO from an unapproved PR:
Where can this validation be turned off in Maximo?
A. Organizations application
B. Purchase Orders application
C. System Properties application
D. Database Configuration application
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the Enable Repair Facilities Organization option allow?
A. Creating a work order in a site different from the site of the asset on that work order
B. Reserving items from one site to use at another site on an emergency maintenance work order
C. Moving an asset from one location to another location on an emergency maintenance work order
D. Creating a preventive maintenance (PM) record in a site different from the site of the asset on that PM
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which property is used to define the directory used when importing data using the Integration
Framework?
A. Mxe.int.dir
B. Mxe.int.localdir
C. Mxe.int.globaldir
D. Mxe.int.accessdir
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which function is performed in the Quick Reporting application?
A. Create failure code hierarchies
B. Create job plans and safety plans
C. Create preventive maintenance schedules
D. Report actual labor, materials, and tools used in the work
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are two uses for the Assignment Manager application? (Choose two.)
A. To dispatch labor and schedule work for an organization
B. To create and manage work orders for assets and locations
C. To report labor transactions by labor, by vendor/contract, by work order, or by ticket
D. To specify which organizations and sites can use the information that is on the job plan and its tasks
E. To view the requirements that were created from the work plan as well as the unplanned work on a
work order
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Which IBM Maximo Asset Management location status is necessary to associate a location with a
system.?
A. Active
B. Ready
C. Operating
D. Decommissioned
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update
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NO.1 Each of the following is true about the ID vault EXCEPT;
A.Smartcard-enabled IDs cannot be stored in a vault.
B.You can not use the CA process when registering users into the vault.
C.Performing certificate authority key rollover on certifier IDs is not supported.
D.You cannot use the CA process when creating cross-certificates that are needed to
establish vault trust
and password reset
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your Domino server has been configured for DAOS, and all mailfiles have also been
enabled
successfully.In which of the following times will consolidation occur when a user saves an
attachment that
meets the defined DAOS size settings?
A.Immediately
B.The next time the DAOS service runs
C.After the user closes the current Notes session
D.By the schedule defined in the server configuration document
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following notes.ini variables must be in place to enable the Domino
Attachment and Object
Service on your Domino server?
A.ServerTasks=DAOS
B.AttachmentService=2
C.Create_R85_Databases=1
D.DAOS_Enabled_On_Server=1
Answer: C

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NO.4 Terry is working on a document in a database on a server that is DAOS-
enabled.While in the document,
Terry replaces the attachment with a new version.Which of the following occurs to the
attachment in the
DAOS store?
A.The server adjusts references to the attachment in DAOS
B.The server removes the reference from all mail files that pointed to that original file
reference
C.The server removes the previous attachment entirely from DAOS and inserts the link to the
new
attachment
D.The server uploads the full previous attachment to all user mail files that pointed to that
original file
reference
Answer: A

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NO.5 In databases that use DAOS, Domino performs which of the following with every
document with an
attachment?
A.Domino saves a separate and complete copy
B.Domino saves a reference to each attached file
C.Domino creates a field in the document called $DAOSnopurge
D.Domino copies the attachment to a central repository and leaves a copy attached to the
document
E.Domino splits the attachment into smaller sections and compresses each section and file
reference
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your development team has modified the client download site for Lotus Traveler.All of
the changes,
though, are not being seen as the server is still pointing to the old directory and files.You
have
successfully modified the Home URL in the Internet Site Document.Which of the following
must also be
modified?
A.The servlet utilized by the Domino Web server
B.The NTS_WEBSITE_HOME parameter in the notes.ini file
C.Disable Internet Site documents in the Domino server
D.Make TCP port 8642 available to all users to see the new site documents
Answer: B

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NO.7 Creating an ID vault on your Domino server requires: Administrator access to the
server on which you
create it Editor access to the Domino Directory and which of the following?
A.Create databases and templates access
B.Membership in the ID Vault Admins group
C.The ID Vault Admin role in the Domino Directory
D.Specifying multiple Domino servers to host the ID Vault database
Answer: A

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NO.8 While creating the ID vault, you must configure the organizations that trust the vault for
ID
storage.Which of the following does this create?
A.An AdminP request is created
B.ID vault administrator accounts
C.Vault trust certificates in the Domino Directory
D.Certifier ID files of the organizations or organizational units with vault trust certificates
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which APIs does Symphony Presentation Object Model provide?
A. APIs to open, save and close presentation
B. APIs to save presentation to Lotus Notes database
C. APIs to convert presentation to Microsoft PowerPoint format
D. APIs to convert presentation to XML format
Answer: A

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NO.2 DataPilot table consists of which 4 areas?
A. Page area, Title area, Data area and Detail area
B. Row area, Column area, Data area and Page area
C. Title area, Row area, Column area and Data area
D. Top area, Bottom area, Left area and Right area
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is one of the advantages of Symphony being built on top of Expeditor?
A. It allows you to create artificial intelligence applications.
B. It allows you to write .NET applications and integrate them with documents.
C. It allows you to synchronize every character of a document with a server.
D. It allows you to embed business productivity tooling in line of business workflow and vice-
versa.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The purpose of Symphony Java API is ___________.
A. to have a standardize way of utilizing functionality of Symphony from within your
Symphony
applications.
B. to display Java Server Pages in Symphony.
C. to allow Java application to run from within Symphony.
D. to support Javascript scripting language just like a web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Jane is new to Lotus Symphony and she wants to know what are the advantages of
using Mail Merge.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Mail Merge.?
A. You can send attachments as PDF, not just ODF.
B. You can send out batches of letters that merge fields from a data source.
C. You can use Java API to execute mail merge operation in the background.
D. You can select a data source and merge its fields into a new document.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2010-565
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation
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Exam Code: 000-M41
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Exam Code: C2090-719
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NO.1 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 A custom event has been added requiring the creation of a new EventMap. How is this EventMap
associated with the RCA plug-in?
A. register the EventMap with the RCA plug-in using the ncp_gwplugins.pl script
B. ensure that the Eventld is mapped to the EventMap in the NcoGatelnserts.cfg file
C. edit the EventGatewaySchema.cfg and include the EventMap in the ncp2nco section
D. no action needed - any EventMap in the EventGatewaySchema.cfg file will be passed to the RCA
plug-in by default
Answer: A

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NO.3 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP
Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?
A. CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B. SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C. SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D. DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the line
within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C

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NO.6 If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?
A. Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B. Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C. IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D. There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic
network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information
was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already
extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields: customerName and
customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does
the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?
A. add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B. modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C. modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the table
created in the NCIM database
D. no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to all of the
tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2010-579
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which command creates an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager policy set?
A. Define policyset my_domain my_policy
B. Create policyset my_domain my_policy
C. Activate policyset my_domain my_policy
D. Create new policyset my_domain my_policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.4 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z04
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NO.1 Which value composes the unique byte of a Master VRRP router's MAC address?
A. the default priority of the original VRRP Master
B. a random number between 1-255 that is generated when the VRRP instance is created
C. the Master's loopback address
D. the ID associated with the VRRP instance
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are running Secure Shell (SSH) on your HP ProCurve switch, and you want to authenticate the
device that you use to manage the switch using the SSH-Client-Public-Key method. What must you do?
A. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the client private key to the switch.
B. Generate a public and private key pair on the switch.
C. Copy the switch public and private key pair to the client.
D. Generate a public and private key pair on the client, copying the public key to the switch.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your company's security policies require managers to use HTTPS to access Web browser interfaces
of infrastructure products. Which tasks must you complete on each product? (Select two.)
A. Generate a self-signed server certificate for HTTPS.
B. Install a server certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
C. Install a client certificate for HTTPS obtained from a Certificate Authority.
D. Generate a certificate revocation list for HTTPS.
E. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 A router has several interfaces that are all in the same OSPF areas. You want the router to receive a
default route and summary routes but no routes that have been redistributed into OSPF from another
routing method. How should you define the router's OSPF area?
A. Stub Area
B. Not-So-Stubby Area
C. transit Area
D. type 3 area
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have configured values for the Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Pvt-Group-ID, and Tunnel-Medium-Type
attributes in a policy on your RADIUS server. Which dynamic setting(s)
have you created?
A. dynamic ACL only
B. dynamic VLAN only
C. dynamic rate limit only
D. dynamic rate limit and dynamic VLAN
E. dynamic ACL and dynamic VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which type of OSPF Link State Advertisement (LSA) does an Area Border Router (ABR) send into one
area to advertise a summary route to all networks in another area?
A. type 5
B. type 3
C. type 2
D. type 1
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which security technology in Internet Key Exchange (IKE) allows endpoints to generate secure keys
without agreeing to them beforehand?
A. AES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. RSA
D. HMAC
Answer: B

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NO.8 What must be enabled on a Cisco switch for Cisco PVST+ to interoperate with ProCurve devices
running 802.1s (MSTP) spanning tree?
A. VLAN 4096
B. the native VLAN
C. PVST+ compatibility mode
D. 802.1s (MSTP) compatibility mode
E. VLAN 1
Answer: E

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NO.1 What are challenges that prevent better, faster outcomes for Application Delivery? (Select
three.)
A. quality
B. server power and cooling consumption
C. real-time visibility into rapid change
D. change readiness
E. network performance
F. predictability
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.2 Which statement about HP products is correct?
A. The Executive Scorecard is the official name of the complete, integrated, instrumented suite of
HP
Software solutions; the IT Performance Suite is top-level scorecard in the HP IT Performance Suite.
B. The Executive Scorecard describes the products within the mission dashboard.
C. The IT Performance Suite is a product that collects KPIs from the Enterprise and displays them in
the
ITPS mission dashboard or HUD display.
D. The IT Performance Suite is the official name of the complete, integrated, instrumented suite of
HP
Software solutions; the Executive Scorecard is top-level scorecard in the HP IT Performance Suite.
Answer: D

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NO.3 According to HP, which business challenges have a direct impact on IT? (Select three.)
A. monetary depreciation in the international credit markets
B. fuel costs
C. compliance and risk
D. evolving business models
E. uncertain immigration policies
F. economic uncertainty
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.4 How does HP help an organization link operations and applications together for more
efficiency?
A. Applications and operations are tightly linked by providing metrics, out-of-the-box integrations,
and key
performance indicators across silos to provide a big-picture view of business services across the
organization.
B. HP does not combine data from applications and operations but, instead, segregates it in
compliance
with security requirements by federal and international governing organizations.
C. HP keeps application and operational data separate so it can be compared against each other to
determine best-in-class metrics.
D. HP uses third-party tools to integrate application and operations with key web-based technology.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which type of system does HP recommend that every IT business leader have to guide
management decisions.?
A. Performance System
B. Server Deployment System
C. Desktop Deployment System
D. Network HUD Panel System
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J37
Exam Name: Implementing XP24000, XP20000, XP12000, XP10000
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Exam Code: HP0-J59
Exam Name: StoreOnce Solutions Advanced Service and Support
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NO.1 When reloading the configuration from a saved configuration file, same information will not
be
restored since it could potentially cause data loss on the surviving D2D appliance. Which data is
not restored and needs to be entered during the recovery operations?
A. Replication slot mapping
B. iSCSI partner settings
C. TCP/IP addresses
D. SMTP and eMail settings
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement describes the difference between deduplication technology used on an HP
VLS9200 and an HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System?
A. The VLS9200 and D2D4324 use post-processing deduplication technology.
B. VLS9200 uses HP post-processing deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP StoreOnce inline
deduplication technology.
C. VLS9200 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Accelerated Deduplication
technology.
D. VLS9200 uses HP StoreOnce Deduplication: D2D4324 uses HP Dynamic Deduplication
technology.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which library emulation types can be used with the HP StoreOnce D2D4324 Backup System to
integrate the solution in a customer environment? (Select three)
A. HP 2x8 Autoloader
B. D2D-VTL generic library
C. MSL6060 G2 series library
D. EML series library
E. D2DBS generic library
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 A customer asks you to recommend an HP StoreOnce Backup System solution with these
availability features:
Redundant fans
Redundant power supplies
Dual 8 GB Fibre Channel connections
Which Hp StoreOnce Backup System model meets these requirements?
A. D2D2502i G2
B. D2D4106fc
C. D2D4306fc
D. D2D4324
Answer: D

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NO.5 Backup jobs are failing to a NAS share on an HP StoreOnce D2D Backup System permissions
set. What is one way to verify access to this CIFS share?
A. Check if root user permissions have been granted to the share.
B. Verify that no Linux backup servers access the CIFS shares.
C. Check Active Directory or local permissions for the share.
D. Verify that the client system being backed up has permission to write to share.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement correctly describes the installation wizard of an HP StoreOnce Backup
System
when run for the first time?
A. It automatically configures the iSCSI Initiator on the target host.
B. It automatically configure the system with the default IP 192.168 1.0/ 24.
C. It automatically operates in High Availability (LACP) network mode
D. It automatically creates an iSCSI device on iSCSI models.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Implementing HP0-D21 HP Matrix Operating Environment
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Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design
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Exam Code: HP0-S33
Exam Name: Advanced Integration and Management of HP Server Solutions
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NO.1 What can you use to free up an HP Integrity license from HP Infrastructure Orchestration?
A. vslicense command
B. HP SIM License Manager
C. vseassist command
D. CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Toll
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which turnkey HP Converged Infrastructure solution meets the following requirements?
Automated deployment and protection of virtualized applications Choice of virtual and utility store
with multi-tenancy, automatic management, and thin provisioning Optimized server and desktop
virtualization Investment protection with a clear upgrade path to the cloud
A. VirtualSystem
B. CloudSystem
C. StorageSystem
D. AppSystem
Answer: A

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NO.3 You installed the Pro module of Insight Control System Center Virtual Machine Manager.
Which additional functionality does this provide?
A. VMware server management support
B. Automatic migration of virtual machines when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
C. Automatic migration of virtual connect profiles when a hardware pre-failure alert is received
D. Support for Agentless management of ProLiant Gen8 servers
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are using a central management server (CMS) as a DHCP server for a deployment network
and as a DNS server for a management network and to forward unknown requests to the ISP DNS
server. What is a requirement for this CMS?
A. It must have a static IP on the management network
B. It must have a dynamic IP on the deployment network
C. It must bind to the deployment network
D. A must bind DNS to the ISP network
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do you launch CloudSystem Matrix Versioning Tool in TS mode?
A. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter the TS credentials specified in Readme file.
B. Launch the MatrixDGMUI.exe program by accessing the folder where you saved HP CloudSystem
Matrix Versioning Tool files.
C. At the Onboard Administrator logon screen, enter T and S while pressing the Alt and Shift Keys.
D. Launch Matrix DTS.exe program.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which capability does an HP CloudSystem Matrix solution provide?
A. Storage automation of HP arrays
B. Unified services management across private, hybrid and public cloud environments and
traditional IT
C. Infrastructure provisioning, monitoring, patching, and compliance management
D. Advanced database automatic with log files management
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which key infrastructure management challenges do HP Converged infrastructure solutions
solve? (Select two)
A. Inability of traditional IT to keep up with business demands
B. Need to shift IT expenditure from operations to innovations
C. Resistance to adopting service-oriented architectures
D. Show adoption of virtualization technologies
E. Aging workforces with outdated skills
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 What is a requirement when performing a bare-metal deployment using Insight Control for
Microsoft Systems Center?
A. Insight Contract server deployment
B. Insight Control server migration
C. ProLiant Gen8 rack-mount server
D. ProLiant G7 server blade
Answer: A

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Exam Name: HP LaserJet Foundations
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Exam Code: HP2-N29
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NO.1 What is one possible cause of consistently smeared print output?
A. paper moisture content too high
B. paper moisture content too low
C. paper finish too smooth or basis weight too heavy
D. paper finish too rough or basis weight too light
Answer: C

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NO.2 Test has a LaserJet 4100 MFP, in which there was a failed hard disk drive
(HDD). The faulty 20GB HDD has been replaced with a new 40GB HDD. Now the
customer is unable to find the 'Send' option under 'Configure Device' on the control
panel. What is the issue?
A. firmware needs to be downloaded on to the HDD
B. the sending option is never available in the control panel
C. the 40GB HDD is not compatible and needs a 20GB HDD
D. the HDD is not initialized
Answer: D

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NO.3 Test has purchased a < memory DIMM to upgrade a Color LaserJet 4600
printer. The printer gives a 53.10.xx error after the memory is upgraded to the printer.
What needs to be done to resolve the issue?
A. upgrade is not possible
B. the printer memory slot is faulty, the formatter needs replacement
C. the memory has been installed in the wrong slot, memory will need to reinstalled
properly
D. the memory doesn't meet HP standard, different memory will need to be purchased
Answer: D

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NO.4 The HP born-on date (Service ID) appears as a five digit number in the format YYDDD,
where YY represents the year of manufacture and DDD the month and day. Using the
standard formula, what is the born-on date represented by 11280?
A. December 30, 1991
B. January 28, 2001
C. October 10,2001
D. December 30, 1996
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have been tasked with determining the cause of a paper jam in a laser printer. You
have determined the location of the jam. You have checked the sensor flags in the paper
path, and you have checked the condition of the rollers in the paper path. What could still
be a cause of the jam?
A. The transfer belt is dirty.
B. The toner is low.
C. The fuser is at an incorrect temperature.
D. The media being used is outside the specifications for this printer.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which functions are available on a multi-function printer? Select THREE.
A. email capability
B. color separation
C. digital enhancement
D. thermal imaging
E. network printing
F. faxing
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.7 You are troubleshooting a non-functional printer and have identified and analyzed all
symptoms associated with the particular problem. What should your next course of action
be?
A. develop an action plan for problem resolution
B. determine and prioritize possible causes
C. narrow the symptoms to one critical area
D. identify a possible solution
Answer: B

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NO.8 Test has a LaserJet 4345 MFP printer, and wants to configure the 'Send To
Folder' option. He has an expired version of Digital Sending Software. How can the
customer configure the 'Send To Folder' option?
A. the printer driver
B. EWS (Embedded Web Server)
C. WJA (Web Jet Administrator)
D. the control panel
Answer: C

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Exam Name: HP Imaging and printing Sale fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP0-J47
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NO.1 Which action should be performed after HP StorageWorks P9000 post delivery tasks are completed?
A. Use upload config in the WEBES Device Manager to upload the XP configuration into WEBES.
B. Use the Configuration File Loader in Command View Advanced Edition to export a spreadsheet
containing the configuration of an XP storage system.
C. Use get config in the command line user interface to export the system configuration to a file.
D. Use the RWC sysinfo print to function and text configuration file.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is using Command View Advanced Edition and is interested in the architecture of this
solution. Which protocol is used by the Device Management Server to communicate with the array?
A. UDP
B. TCP/IP
C. FC
D. SMI-S
Answer: B

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NO.3 LUN management controls access of hosts to LUNs. Which statements are true about LUN
management? (Select two.)
A. A host group must exist on each port.
B. LUN security must be enabled.
C. Each host group on a port can have the same or different host modes.
D. All cluster hosts and their ports must be in the same host group.
E. A host group can span multiple hosts and ports.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Encryption of data stored on internal drives is performed by which P9500 subsystem?
A. CHA
B. ESW
C. DKA
D. MPB
Answer: C

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NO.5 When duplicating the production data from one of the primary volumes (P-VOLs) stored in an HP
StorageWorks P9500 array, which rule applies to the P-VOL and secondary volume (S-VOL)?
A. The host can only have read/write access to the S-VOL when in the PAIR state.
B. The host can have read/write to the P-VOL only during a reverse resync operation.
C. The host can write to the P-VOL only during a pair-resync quick restore.
D. The host can have read/write access to the S-VOL after the pairsplit operation is complete.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The P9500 Remote Web Console (RWC) allows users to submit multiple changes to be applied to an
array without waiting for the first request operation to complete. User A submits a change request and the
task starts executing. User A is interrupted by a phone call, but remains on the same screen. User B starts
a RWC session and attempts to submit a change request. User A finishes the phone call and then submits
a second
change request before his first one completes.
When is User A's second request executed?
A. immediately after User A's first request is finished
B. before User B's request, if priority level is set higher
C. immediately after User B's request is finished
D. after User B's request, if priority level is set lower
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is included in the HP StorageWorks P9000 Array Manager software? (Select three.)
A. Thin Provisioning
B. RAID Manager
C. Performance Monitor
D. DKA Encryption
E. Replication Manager
F. Data Shredder
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.8 For every HP StorageWorks P9000 Business Copy primary volume, how many secondary volumes can
be paired.?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C

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