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Exam Code: C2010-577
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 Implementation
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NO.1 How is the BES Gather Service configured to use a service account?
A. Edit the properties for the BES Gather Service and set the service to Log on as: to use the
service
account service account ID and password
B. Make a custom copy of BES Support task 125 and in the custom copy edit the action
script with the
account information, save the custom copy to the Master Action Site, and deploy to the main
TEM server
C. During the deployment planning phase the IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) sales
person should
have provided a custom BESGatherService.vbs file; run the vbs file on the TEM server to
configure
gathering
D. Open the Windows Registry on the TEM server, go to
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\BigFix\Enterprise Server/GatherService, and set the
String
Value Logon Info to use the service account name and password
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tool does IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager use to discover assets on a network(s)?
A. Nmap
B. Wireshark
C. IBM Tivoli Network Node Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Asset Discovery for Distributed
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a supported database platform for IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2?
A. Oracle 9i
B. IBMDB2 9.2
C. MySQL 5.5.20
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Message Level Encryption feature of IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager V8.2 (TEM)
increases security
but adds an additional load to the environment. What system hardware changes should be
made to the
TEM environment to accommodate the additional load?
A. Add more RAM to the relays and clients
B. Add more disk space to the TEM server and clients
C. Add more RAM to the TEM server or decrypting relay
D. Add more processing power to the TEM server or decrypting relay
Answer: D

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NO.5 How is an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client system most efficiently promoted
to a relay?
A. Manually run the reiayinstaill.exe package on the desired system
B. All TEM clients are already relays so no additional configuration is necessary
C. Use the relay install task from the TEM Console to install the relay on the desired system
D. Create a fixlet using the TEM Software Distribution tool to distribute and execute the relay
install on the
desired system
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which file(s) does an IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager (TEM) client need to download as
part of an action
to migrate from one TEM server to another?
A. License certificate of the new TEM server only
B. New TEM server master operator private key files
C. Action Site Masthead of the new TEM server only
D. License certificate of the old TEM server and license certificate of the new TEM server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which dashboard can be used to check the number of unreachable endpoints?
A. License Overview
B. Deployment Overview
C. Client Health Overview
D. Deployment Health Checks
Answer: D

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NO.8 By default, when will Automatic Relay Selection on the client occur?
A. Upon every reboot
B. Once every 6 hours
C. Once every 24 hours
D. Once every 12 hours
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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NO.1 Which two steps are necessary to set up data rule monitoring?
A. Create Metric.
B. Create Data Rule Definition.
C. Create Data Source connection.
D. Create batch script to run data rule.
E. Create and configure dashboard environment to see run results.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 What are two characteristics of data rules?
A. Each data rule has a defined status.
B. Data rules only produce exception data.
C. Data rule definitions are explicit to one data source.
D. You cannot transfer data rules to another environment.
E. Data rules can be tested interactively during data rule creation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 You are configuring security for a user who will be testing Information Analyzer rules on an ad
hoc basis.
What steps are necessary to ensure the user can test the rules?
A. Enable the Suite User and Information Analyzer Rules Author roles in the Information Server web
console on the Administration tab.
B. Enable the Rules User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace.
C. Enable the Rule User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Rules Operator role in the Information Analyzer console in the Home Analysis Settings workspace
.
D. Enable the Suite User and Rules Administrator role in the Information Analyzer web console on the
Administration tab. Add the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project
Properties workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are working with a System Administrator who must move an Information Analyzer project
to a new Information Server environment using the command line tools. You need to ensure that the
project is established with the same metadata and reports as in the original environment.
Which parameter must be included to successfully complete the export?
A. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeCommonReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
B. -includeAssignedAssets; -includeProjectReports; -includeAIIDataSources
C. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
D. -includeProjectMetadata; -includelAReports; -includeDependentClasses
Answer: C

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NO.5 If there is a need to run data rules on a daily basis, which two options are valid?
A. Create a bundle and run lAJob command
B. Schedule lAJob runs using DataStage Director
C. Run lAJob command pointing to data rule executable
D. Run lABundle command pointing to all rules to be executed
E. Submit lAJob command on a daily basis from Information Server Operation console
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which can be done in the Data Rule Stage?
A. Create a metric
B. Unpublish a rule
C. Delete a published rule
D. Create an unpublished rule
Answer: C

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NO.7 A new business group, working in a separate and distinct Information Analyzer environment, is
starting to assess their data quality, but wishes to reuse existing data quality validation to jumpstart
their effort.
Which method supports delivering the data rule definitions to this new environment?
A. Open InfoSphere Metadata Asset Manager; go to Home>Metadata Management>Data Quality,
select the desired Data Rule Definitions, click the Export task, and then provide the output file name.
Repeat the process in the new environment but click the Import option and select the output file
name.
B. Open InfoSphere Metadata Workbench; go to the Find tab; open drop down list and select Data
Rule Definition; check the desired Data Rule Definitions; click Save icon and select Save as Data
Format(XML) - Import. Open Metadata Workbench in the new environment but click the Advanced
tab; select Import Metadata option and select the output file name.
C. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -getRuleDefinition including the -
project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, and the -xml
output type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new
environment create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
D. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -exportRuleDefinitions including the
-project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, the -xml output
type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new environment
create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have been tasked with documenting all fields that contain personal information while
performing profiling activities.
Which method would you use to accomplish this?
A. Select the 'Personal' status on the Domain & Completeness workspace.
B. Update the 'Priority' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
C. Update the 'Personal' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
D. Select the data class or sub-class indicating the type of information for each field containing
personal information.
Answer: C

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NO.1 The customer's Service Level Agreement states that the network attached storage
(NAS) filer should
be protected so that a single file restore is possible. What prerequisite must be met so that a
network data
management protocol backup with a Table of Content (TOC) is possible?
A. A TOC storage pool must be available.
B. The server option toc=always must be set.
C. The client option single file restore=yes must be defined
D. A management class with copygroup value tocdestination must be available and assigned.
Answer: D

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NO.2 During the backup of a network attached storage filer this error occurred:
The table of contents cannot be created (ANR1110E).
The backup node command was included in a server script and has the option toc=yes. What
is the
reason for the error?
A. The TOC storage pool was not available
B. The correct option is TOC=if available.
C. The backup was type snapm where toc=yes is not allowed.
D. The assigned management class did not have a TOC destination.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where is the schedlogname option changed?
A. In the client options file
B. In the server options file
C. In the Administration Center
D. At the operating system command prompt
Answer: A

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NO.4 A tape cartridge was inserted into the library TSMLIB1 to be used as a scratch tape.
Which command
will make volume VOLUMEJ a scratch volume?
A. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk CHECKLabel=Barcode STATus=Scratch
B. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl VOLUME_l SEARCH=No CHECKLabel=Barcode
STATus=SCRatch
C. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=Bulk VOLRange=VOLUME_l CHECKLabel=Yes
STATus=SCRatch
D. CHECKIn LIBVolume TSMLIBl SEARCH=No VOLRange=VOLUME_l
CHECKLabel=Barcode
STATus=SCRatch
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which application can be used to gather and analyze performance data about backup
and restore
operations for an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager client?
A. Information Center
B. Administration Center
C. Tivoli Data Warehouse
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Console
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) function can reduce the amount of data
transferred for a
VMware backup?
A. Client-side deduplication
B. Server-side deduplication
C. TSM API with VMware compression
D. TSM API with VMware deduplication
Answer: A

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NO.7 What must be set to enable client-side deduplication with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.3.?
A. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENT.
B. The DEDUPLICATION option on the client must be set to CLIENTORSERVER.
C. The primary storage pool must be a random-access DISK storage pool that is enabled for
data
deduplication.
D. The primary storage pool must be a sequential-access FILE storage pool that is enabled
for data
deduplication.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator wants to protect the Active Directory on a Windows Server 2008
R2and so enables
snapshot support via volume shadow service. Which domain statement in dsm.opt will enable
a
successful backup of the Active Directory?
A. Domain ALL-LOCAL
B. Domain ALL-LOCAL +ADS
C. Domain ALL-LOCAL -SystemState
D. Domain ALL-LOCAL -SystemObject
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2040-412
Exam Name: IBM Notes Traveler Administration
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NO.1 Which option describes how a load balancer is used for an IBM Notes Traveler High Availability
(HA) implementation?
A. secures connections between Notes Traveler servers and IBM Domino mail servers
B. spreads the user to server connections across multiple Notes Traveler HA Pool members
C. balances mail server traffic between Notes Traveler servers and clustered Domino mail servers
D. spreads large amounts of data across multiple Notes Traveler servers when users are
synchronizing a large attachment to a device
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can an administrator ensure that the network communication between the IBM Notes
Traveler server and the mail servers is optimized?
A. A different port other than the default RPC port of 1352 should be used.
B. The network connection should enforce secure socket layer encryption.
C. The network connection should not enforce secure socket layer encryption.
D. The Notes Traveler and mail servers should both reside in the same data center.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Once IBM Notes Traveler servers are put into production, what average percentage should the
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A. 65
B. 75
C. 85
D. 95
Answer: B

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NO.4 IBM Notes Traveler mobile client to server traffic is secured over which protocol?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3)
C. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
D. Notes Remote Procedure Call (NRPC)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which operating system is supported by the IBM Notes Traveler 9.0 server?
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B. IBM AIX 5.3
C. Microsoft Windows 7
D. IBM i 6.1 POWER System
Answer: D

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NO.6 After deploying IBM Notes Traveler 9.0, Nancy wants to connect the servers to her IBM DB2
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A. ./travelerUtil db set user=LNTUSER pw=passw0rd
B. travelerUtil db set
url=jdbc:sqlserver://db1.ibm.com:1433;databasename=TRAVELERuser=LNTUSER pw=passw0rd
C. travelerUtil db set url=jdbc:db2://db1.ibm.com:50000/TRAVELER user=db2admin pw=passw0rd
D. travelerUtil db set
url=jdbc:db2://db1.ibm.com:50000/TRAVELER:clientRerouteAlternateServerName=db2.ibm.com;c
lientRerouteAlternatePortNumber=50000;retryIntervalForClientReroute=10;maxRetriesForClientR
eroute=3; user=db2adminpw=passw0rd
Answer: D

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A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
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A. Users must reinstall Notes Traveler on their devices.
B. A front-end proxy like IBM Mobile Connect is needed.
C. Users can enter multiple Notes Traveler devices in the settings section of their mobile devices.
D. IBM WebSphere Deployment Manager must be installed to allow both Notes Traveler servers to
communicate.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two factors cause an improvement to a customer's return on investment?
A. reduced downtime
B. decreased latency
C. reduced complexity
D. increased throughput
E. decreased time to resolution
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 A customer requests that a Proof of Concept is run to show how the Tivoli portfolio can provide
a solution to meet a regulatory compliance requirement which is being applied across their network.
The customer must have quick turnaround in order to meet internal planning deadlines so all the
functionality is required to be out-of-the-box.
Which Tivoli Network and Service Assurance product set can meet these requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Network Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus
C. IBM Tivoli Network Performance Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Network Configuration Manager
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two resources are the most critical to ensuring sufficient performance of the
Netcool/OMNIbus server?
A. CPU
B. I-Nodes
C. memory
D. disk space
E. network bandwidth
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A. the operations staff
B. the system administrator
C. the network engineering staff
D. the owner of the current system
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NO.5 When designing an IBM Tivoli Netcool Configuration Manager solution, which two factors
impact licensing costs the most?
A. the number of network devices that need to be managed
B. the type of SmartModels used to manage network devices
C. the number of worker servers needed to manage the network
D. the number of named users accessing the presentation servers
E. the number of presentation servers needed to manage the users
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 The solution design document should include a design decisions section. Which three topics
should be covered in this section?
A. design options
B. licensing costs
C. network topology
D. technical contact list
E. software part numbers
F. plan for physical architecture
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.7 How is High Availability (HA) implemented in IBM Tivoli Netcool Performance Manager for
Wireline and Wireless?
A. useDB2HA
B. use Oracle RAC
C. use IBM Tivoli System Automation for Multiplatforms
D. use IBM Tivoli Netcool Performance Manager HA Module
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a valid user authentication method that could be used as a standard authentication
mechanism across all Tivoli Network and Service Assurance products?
A. LDAP
B. biometric
C. NT-LAN Manager
D. two factor authentication
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer has two 5 TB MS SQL databases with critical data to the business. Which
products should
be recommended to the customer in order to run database backups online with optimal
performance?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSMJ for Databases and TSM API
B. TSM for Databases and TSM for Storage Area Networks
C. TSM for Databases and TSM for Enterprise Resource Planning
D. TSM for Databases and IBM Tivoli Continuous Data Protection for Databases
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company's IT Manager has requested a topology view of the storage area network
infrastructure.
Which product provides this function?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Area Network Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Basic Edition
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which difference is reflected in a gap analysis?
A. between software versions
B. between expected and actual results
C. between storage capacity and actual usage
D. between actual and projected labor requirements
Answer: B

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NO.4 What should be done to complete the Solution Project after collecting customer
requirements and
educational/experience level of personnel, creating a solution design and proposal, and
presenting the
solution proposal?
A. have a formal IT Management sign-off on the purchase order
B. schedule a formal service review with the chief operations officer and staff
C. execute a formal review with the IT manager to confirm acceptance and solution
compliance
D. schedule a formal customer sign-off on the proposed Scope Document or Statement of
Work
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer using IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) has the infrastructure and
hardware necessary to
recover the TSM server to a remote location. The procedure to recover the TSM server is
documented in
a Microsoft Word (MS Word) file in one of the UNIX administrator's laptop. Which
recommendation should
be documented and provided to the customer?
A. Ask the UNIX administrator to send an e-mail to the IT organization with the MS Word file.
B. Backup the MS Word file with TSM and restore it in the disaster recovery remote location
daily.
C. Post the MS Word file in a shared drive on one of the file and print servers on the remote
location
D. Configure Disaster Recovery Manager and document the procedure so it is part of the
TSM database.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two pieces of information should be included in the description of the current
storage Service
Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. backup window
B. age of hardware
C. cost of maintenance
D. data retention requirements
E. roles and responsibilities documentation
Answer: A

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NO.7 During the interview with the customer it is determined that there are no full time
employees assigned to
manage the storage infrastructure and that there will be a need for three IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager
(TSM) servers and over 2000 TSM clients. Which recommendation should be included in the
education
document?
A. that the customer call IBM Support if they have trouble
B. that the customer have their senior storage administrator administer the training
C. that the customer transfer two existing employees to this department and begin training
D. that the customer have their storage administrators work with IBM to schedule classes for
the products
to be implemented
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which application shows data storage trending for the customer's storage
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Netcool
B. IBM Tivoli Asset Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Answer: C

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B. Other solutions are of lower quality and do not provide the premier functionality of IBM products
C. Disengage from the client
D. Ask them to discuss Guardium with their current security vendor
Answer: A

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B. SOX
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D. HIPAA
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NO.3 Which is a benefit of using Guardium DAM instead of Database Logging?
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B. Turning Database Logging on will cause a performance hit to the Database
C. Database Logging is used for providing results in real time
D. There is no benefit
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through?
A. File and Volume Encryption
B. Database Encryption
C. Policy Based Access Control to Encrypted Data
D. All of them
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A. Guardium Data Encryption
B. Guardium Database Activity Monitoring
C. Guardium Vulnerability Assessment
D. Guardium Data Redaction
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which ticket type must be used for a user who is asking for information?
A. Incident
B. Problem
C. Service Request
D. Process Request
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two activities are included in the scope of IT Asset management? (Choose two.)
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B. License Management
C. Security Management
D. Inventory Management
E. Configuration Management
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NO.3 What is the purpose of the Update Promotion action?
A. To update attributes of the configuration item (CI) based on the information from the Actual CI
B. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the CI
C. To update attributes of the CI based on the information from the Change Management process
D. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the Change Management
process
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) application server used for?
A. To apply SCCD fix packs
B. To generate SCCD EAR files
C. To provide a SCCD runtime environment
D. To customize Maximo Business Object Java code
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are three types of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk offerings? (Choose three.)
A. Action
B. Descriptive
C. Work Order
D. Work Request
E. Service Catalog
F. Service Request
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.6 What are two appropriate Key Performance Indicators for the Service Catalog Management
Process? (Choose two.)
A. Number of accesses per month
B. Number of calls to the service desk
C. Percent of users who use the service catalog
D. Percent of users who are aware of the service catalog
E. Number of services published including Service Level Agreements/Targets
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What functionality will a user need to define a set of tasks that will be applied to the Service
Request once the Catalog Request is submitted and approved?
A. Job Plan
B. Fulfillment Plan
C. Ticket Template
D. Fulfillment Template
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the purpose of the Promotion process?
A. To create configuration items (CI) from Actual CIs
B. To create Actual CIs from CIs
C. To enable CIs to be used in the Change Management process
D. To enable Actual CIs to be used in the Change Management process
Answer: A

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Exam Name: PRINCE2 Foundation Exam (PR2F)
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Exam Code: EX0-008
Exam Name: Agile Scrum Foundation
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Exam Code: EX0-005
Exam Name: Management of Portfolio® Foundation
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NO.1 When is a Sprint complete?
A. When all of the Product Backlog items are completed.
B. When all the tasks in the Sprint Backlog are completed.
C. When the Sprint defined time box ends.
Answer: C

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NO.2 During a Sprint, the team completes four stories with story points 3, 5, 8 and 2 respectively.
They further complete half a story with a story point of 13.
What is the velocity of the team?
A. 18
B. 24.5
C. 31
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does Agile bring predictability to the Planning process?
A. By allowing the customers to review the progress often.
B. By assigning most of the responsibility to the Product Owner.
C. By making the team self-organized and self-planning.
D. By providing early visibility into the team's progress.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A 200 member project team is working on a large and complex system with multiple
subsystems. They would like to start using the Agile Scrum methodology.
As a Scrum Master, what would your best advice be?
A. Scrum is not suited for such a large project. The team should clearly use the Waterfall method or
the Crystal Clear method.
B. Ask all potential members of the project team to have a meeting first and decide if they agree to
use Scrum.
C. Agree a logical sub-division of the system so that smaller Scrum teams can work on sub-systems
and can add tangible value.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Scrum team failed to meet the Sprint objectives. One of the key members of the team fell ill
and was away for two days right at the beginning of the four week Sprint.
What is the most likely reason that the team did not meet the Sprint objectives?
A. The Product Owner is unable to prioritize.
B. The team is lacking skills.
C. The team did not plan the Sprint effectively.
D. The team is over-worked.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A team decided to install a large traffic light in the team hall to indicate whether the latest
build was healthy (green), failing a few tests (orange) or failing high priority tests (red).
What term can be used to describe the traffic light?
A. Information radiator
B. Osmotic communication
C. Triangulation
Answer: A

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NO.7 Who is the owner of a Sprint Backlog Item during the Sprint Planning meeting?
A. The entire team owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
B. The Product Owner owns all Sprint Backlog Items.
C. The team member working on the item owns that item.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer requests a report that summarizes functionality added and defects found and fixed,
right at the end of a Sprint.
Who may best prepare this report?
A. The Product Owner
B. The Scrum Master
C. The team
D. This type of report should not be prepared.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-003
Exam Name: Managing Successful Programmes Foundation
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Exam Code: P3OF
Exam Name: Portfolio, Programme and Project Offices® Foundation
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NO.1 Which is NOT a reason for Managing the Tranches?
A. Implement monitoring and control governance for the programme
B. Assess the programme regularly to check it is in line with the strategic direction of the
organization
C. Achieve stabilization of operational areas which have transitioned to the new state
D. Update programme governance baselines to reflect lessons learned
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which is ensured by the Business Change Manager in the process Realizing the Benefits?
A. Optimal running of the programme verified by audits and reviews
B. Effective benefits realization through creating a Benefits Management Strategy
C. Readiness of the organization to implement the changes
D. Alignment of project scope with benefits realization
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which describes the result of a risk on a programme?
A. Risk cause
B. Risk appetite
C. Risk aggregation
D. Risk effect
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which part of the scope of programme quality is MOST likely to be concerned with making
best use of skills and experience?
A. Standards management
B. People management
C. Process management
D. Communications management
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the step in the Benefits Management Cycle that includes carrying out activities to
transition the capabilities delivered by the projects into outcomes?
A. Deliver benefits realization
B. Identify benefits
C. Develop the benefits management approach
D. Plan benefits realization
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is evidenced by the Business Case?
A. Continuing affordability of the programme
B. Responsibility for managing the Business Change Team
C. Information about what will be subject to review
D. Risk responses for the initial programme risks
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why are programme governance baselines updated?
A. Reflect lessons learned, in Managing the Tranches
B. Adjust programme governance to align with project governance, in Delivering the Capability
C. Reflect lessons from earlier programmes, in Identifying a Programme
D. Prepare for benefit reviews, in Realizing the Benefits
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about the purpose of issue management is true?
1.To prepare for a potential situation that could improve the Business Case
2.To resolve an unacceptable situation that has affected the delivery of capability
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both land 2are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 is true
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MOPF
Exam Name: Management of Portfolio® Foundation
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Exam Code: MORF
Exam Name: Management of Risk Foundation
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NO.1 Which is a use of a risk management maturity model?
A. Enabling organizations to benchmark their current risk management capability
B. Checking the state of current risk management
C. Identifying areas where application of risk management can be improved
D. Carrying out an enterprise wide assessment
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is a method for obtaining senior management commitment and support for
understanding and managing risk?
A. Developing management of risk guidance handbooks and training materials
B. Ensuring the risk management function has a direct reporting line to a senior executive
C. Escalating risks from the programme, project or operational perspectives to higher levels as
required
D. Making formal assessments of management of risk implementation in areas of concern
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which describes the threat response option 'accept the risk'?
A. Perform an action to minimize the impact of the risk should it occur
B. Carry out an action to make the uncertain situation certain
C. Take no action except monitor the risk to ensure it remains tolerable
D. Partake in a pain/gain contract with another party for the specified risk
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an 'opportunity'?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which specialism has been developed to offer business as usual in the quickest possible time
in the event of an emergency?
A. Incident and crisis management
B. Business continuity management
C. Health and safety management
D. Reputational risk management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which describes the cause of a risk?
A. Likelihood of the risk occurring
B. Potential trigger point for a risk
C. Impact of the risk on an activity
D. Risk remaining after implementing a risk response
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which effect on the organization's objectives could the PESTLE analysis technique help to
identify
A. Risk exposure trends
B. Current external factors
C. Long-term developments
D. Internal strengths
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which is a definition of a risk maturity model?
A. A framework of mature practices for appraising an organization's risk management competency
B. A tool for checking the health of current risk management
C. An assessment of an organization's risk management practice
D. A self-assessment check that the principles have been applied well
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-007
Exam Name: Portfolio, Programme and Project Offices® Foundation
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Exam Code: EX0-001
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
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Exam Code: EX0-006
Exam Name: Management of Value® Foundation
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NO.1 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.2 A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following
would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A

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NO.5 What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets,
resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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Exam Code: EX0-002
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Exam Code: EX0-004
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NO.1 What is the worth of a Function?
A. Its relative importance
B. The current cost of performing it
C. The lowest cost at which it could be performed
D. Its objective
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement about a decision building meeting is true?
A. It should be chaired by the senior responsible owner.
B. The owner, responsible for implementation, has already been determined by the MoV team
before the meeting.
C. Decisions from the meeting should form the basis of the proposal implementation plan
D. Attendees should be limited to the senior responsible person, project manager and project
sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why should MoV align with an organisation's objectives?
A. To minimise the costs of delivering the project
B. To maximise benefits arising from the project
C. To meet stakeholder expectations
D. To avoid maximising value within one project that could diminish value across the wider
programme
Answer: D

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NO.4 When should MoV be embedded into an organization using a formal/top-down approach?
A. The embedding of MoV is required throughout the investment decision.
B. When the scale of MoV applications become large and frequent.
C. When organizations anticipate that their MoV needs will be minimal.
D. When people engaged on other work wish to add MoV to their set of skills.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which describes a purpose of the MoV Study Handbook?
A. It allows Senior Managers to objectively review proposals to determine which should be
B. implemented
C. It ensures that the Study Team are all working from the same level of information
D. It assigns Proposal Owners to all development proposals
E. It helps to ensure that the requirements of the Project Sponsors and end users are aligned
Answer: B

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NO.6 How are Value Drivers used when creating a Value Tree?
A. The Value Tree is derived from the Value Profile after prioritising the Value Drivers
B. Value Drivers describe the physical elements of the project in the Value Tree
C. Primary Value Drivers are linked to statements describing design considerations which in turn are
linked to a statement of objectives
D. Value Drivers are linked (as roots) to a statement of SMART objectives (the tree trunk)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which method provides a good checklist for communication during an MoV study?
A. Brainstorming
B. Five Ws and an H
C. Function Analysis
D. Cost/Worth
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which will be included in the MoV Project Plan?
A. Identification of suitable candidates to lead and participate in the Studies
B. Key attributes of a proposed Study
C. Constraints applicable to a proposed Study
D. A draft function diagram
Answer: A

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