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NO.1 By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. NVRAM
B. TFTP server
C. internal flash
D. PCMCIA card
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a zone used for?
A. to bundle interfaces together for redundancy
B. to bundle interfaces sharing identical security requirements
C. to provide a tunneled connection across a network
D. to protect against spam attacks
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the initial default username and password for all ScreenOS devices?
A. administrator/password
B. root/password
C. netscreen/netscreen
D. admin/netscreen1
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the flow decision process, the system has found a route entry matching the packet
destination IP .
Which pair will identify the policy that is applied to this packet?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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7. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS is corrupted, from which location can an
image be loaded?
A. TFTP server
B. internal flash
C. PCMCIA card
D. Compact Flash Card
Answer: A

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8. In the packet forwarding decision process, how is the second packet handled differently than
the first in a series of allowed interzone packets?
A. The second packet causes an ARP query.
B. The second packet is checked against the policy table.
C. The second packet is forwarded without a sanity check.
D. The second packet is forwarded without checking the route table.
Answer: D

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9. By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A. ROM
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP server
D. Internal Flash
E. PCMCIA Card
Answer: D

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10. Using the CLI, if the startup copy of the ScreenOS on a NS-204 is corrupted, from which two
(2) alternate locations can an image be loaded?
A. ROM
B. TFTP server
C. Internal Flash
D. PCMCIA Card
E. Compact Flash Card
Answer: B,E

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11. Which operating system is used on a NetScreen device?
A. IOS
B. Junos
C. FreeBSD
D. ScreenOS
Answer: A

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12. A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone.
Both interfaces are addressed and active. The configured policy allows user traffic from the user
zone to the FTP server in the servers zone, but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client
to the server.
What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server's subnet.
D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client's subnet.
Answer: C

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13. Which two devices run ScreenOS software? (Choose two.)
A. NetScreen-5200
B. NetScreen-5400
C. SRX240
D. MX480
Answer: C,D

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14. When is NAT used?
A. for Layer 2 switching
B. for MPLS VPNs
C. to translate between IP addresses
D. for secure tunnels
Answer: B

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15. In the packet flow decision process, which pair identifies interzone traffic?
A. source and destination MAC
B. source and destination interface
C. source and destination TCP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which security feature provides secure tunnels across a public network?
A. dynamic routing
B. Web filtering
C. IPsec
D. firewall filters
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NO.6 When a firewall receives the first packet in a series, what will it immediately do?
A. Check its route table.
B. Check its session table.
C. Determine if traffic is crossing zones.
D. Verify that it is not malformed or a fragment.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.2 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command creates an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager policy set?
A. Define policyset my_domain my_policy
B. Create policyset my_domain my_policy
C. Activate policyset my_domain my_policy
D. Create new policyset my_domain my_policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
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Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.6 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
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A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.8 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
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B. export node
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D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.1 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 The global TEM Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is approximately:
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C. 17%
D. 21%
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Reference:http://www.reportlinker.com/p0787925 /Global-Telecom-Expense-Management-Market.h
tml(see first para on the page)

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Exam Code: A2010-568
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NO.1 Which three Java Runtime Environments can be used for IBM Tivoli Composite
Application Manager
for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collectors? (Choose three.)
A.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V7
B.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.4.2
C.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V6.0/1.6
D.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.3 and above
E.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.4.2 SR1
F.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.3 and above
Answer:BCE

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NO.2 The IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data
Collector log
files indicate that a problem exists with active resources consumption of a JVM. What should
the
administrator do next?
A.use DEBUG in cynlogging.properties and a restart is necessary
B.use LOGGING in cynlogging.properties and a restart is necessary
C.use DEBUG in cynlogging.properties and a restart is not necessary
D.use LOGGING in cynlogging.properties and a restart is not necessary
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which two TERM options are supported during the installation of IBM Tivoli
Provisioning Manager?
(Choose two.)
A.tty
B.ansi
C.vt200
D.xterm
E.signal
Answer:BD

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NO.4 Which components in the Managing Server should be increased when over 5 million
transactions are
being stored daily for historical analysis?
A.Archive Agents
B.Message Dispatchers
C.Data Warehouse Agents
D.IBM Tivoli Monitoring Databases
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which three parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Collector for Oracle?
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle Home
B.Application Server Hostname
C.Application Server IP Address
D.Application Server Control Password
E.Application Server Control Host Name
F.Application Server Control User Name
Answer:DEF

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NO.6 What is the attribute group name for the Apache Web Servers called?
A.KYJDATAS attribute group
B.KHTDATAS attribute group
C.KYNAPSRV attribute group
D.KHTAWEBSR attribute group
Answer:D

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NO.7 Using the memory option Memory Leak Diagnosis, what is the most efficient way to
determine if an
application has a memory leak in a test environment?
A.Run a continual steady load for the suspected application. Review the % Growth field to
determine
which object is the leak.
B.Run a continual steady load for the suspected application. Review the # of Objects
Surviving Last GC to
determine which object is the leak.
C.Run a steady load for the suspected application for a given time. Stop the application. After
several GC
cycles, review the % Growth field to determine which object is the leak.
D.Run a steady load for the suspected application for a given time. Stop the application. After
several GC
cycles, review the # of Objects Surviving Last GC field to determine which object is the leak.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding configuration of monitoring of a WebSphere
Application Server
running on an IBM i 6.1 POWER System using IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for
Application
Diagnostics V7.1?
A.Data Collector (DC) must be installed on IBM i machine and Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Agent (TEMA)
on the remote host
B.TEMA must be installed on IBM i and DC on the remote host
C.both TEMA and DC must be installed on the IBM i system
D.TEMA and DC must be installed on the remote host
Answer:A

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NO.1 Which two steps are necessary to set up data rule monitoring?
A. Create Metric.
B. Create Data Rule Definition.
C. Create Data Source connection.
D. Create batch script to run data rule.
E. Create and configure dashboard environment to see run results.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You have been tasked with documenting all fields that contain personal information while
performing profiling activities.
Which method would you use to accomplish this?
A. Select the 'Personal' status on the Domain & Completeness workspace.
B. Update the 'Priority' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
C. Update the 'Personal' attribute for each data field containing personal information.
D. Select the data class or sub-class indicating the type of information for each field containing
personal information.
Answer: C

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A. Each data rule has a defined status.
B. Data rules only produce exception data.
C. Data rule definitions are explicit to one data source.
D. You cannot transfer data rules to another environment.
E. Data rules can be tested interactively during data rule creation.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which can be done in the Data Rule Stage?
A. Create a metric
B. Unpublish a rule
C. Delete a published rule
D. Create an unpublished rule
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are configuring security for a user who will be testing Information Analyzer rules on an ad
hoc basis.
What steps are necessary to ensure the user can test the rules?
A. Enable the Suite User and Information Analyzer Rules Author roles in the Information Server web
console on the Administration tab.
B. Enable the Rules User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace.
C. Enable the Rule User role in the Information Analyzer console Project Properties workspace. Add
the Rules Operator role in the Information Analyzer console in the Home Analysis Settings workspace
.
D. Enable the Suite User and Rules Administrator role in the Information Analyzer web console on the
Administration tab. Add the Data Operator role in the Information Analyzer console Project
Properties workspace.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are working with a System Administrator who must move an Information Analyzer project
to a new Information Server environment using the command line tools. You need to ensure that the
project is established with the same metadata and reports as in the original environment.
Which parameter must be included to successfully complete the export?
A. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeCommonReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
B. -includeAssignedAssets; -includeProjectReports; -includeAIIDataSources
C. -indudeCommonMetadata; -includeReports; -includeAIIDataClasses
D. -includeProjectMetadata; -includelAReports; -includeDependentClasses
Answer: C

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NO.7 If there is a need to run data rules on a daily basis, which two options are valid?
A. Create a bundle and run lAJob command
B. Schedule lAJob runs using DataStage Director
C. Run lAJob command pointing to data rule executable
D. Run lABundle command pointing to all rules to be executed
E. Submit lAJob command on a daily basis from Information Server Operation console
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 A new business group, working in a separate and distinct Information Analyzer environment, is
starting to assess their data quality, but wishes to reuse existing data quality validation to jumpstart
their effort.
Which method supports delivering the data rule definitions to this new environment?
A. Open InfoSphere Metadata Asset Manager; go to Home>Metadata Management>Data Quality,
select the desired Data Rule Definitions, click the Export task, and then provide the output file name.
Repeat the process in the new environment but click the Import option and select the output file
name.
B. Open InfoSphere Metadata Workbench; go to the Find tab; open drop down list and select Data
Rule Definition; check the desired Data Rule Definitions; click Save icon and select Save as Data
Format(XML) - Import. Open Metadata Workbench in the new environment but click the Advanced
tab; select Import Metadata option and select the output file name.
C. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -getRuleDefinition including the -
project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, and the -xml
output type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new
environment create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
D. Create an Information Analyzer command line (CLI) request to -exportRuleDefinitions including the
-project parameter, the -ruleName parameter with each rule separated by a comma, the -xml output
type parameter, and the -output parameter with the output file name. In the new environment
create the command line (CLI) request to import the output file name.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2150-006
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: C2010-564
Exam Name: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Storage Solutions V3
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NO.1 Which query displays information about client node server storage utilization?
A. AUDITLIBRARY
B. AUDIT VOLUME
C. QUERY STORAGE POOL
D. QUERY AUDITOCCUPANCY
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer environment analysis has identified benefits by improving backup
granularity. IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager (TSM) FastBack can be integrated with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager to
improve
recovery. Which feature does TSM FastBack integration add to accomplish this?
A. multi-session backup
B. bare machine recovery
C. block-level incremental backups
D. progressive incremental backups
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company's IT Manager has requested a topology view of the storage area network
infrastructure.
Which product provides this function?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Area Network Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center Basic Edition
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Networks
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer environment is going through a lifecycle process where legacy
applications and old backup
infrastructure will be consolidated and migrated to an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
backup
environment. The consolidated applications consist of one Windows server containing small
files and four
LAN-free MS Exchange servers. The TSM environment is operating at 90% of its capacity
and consists of
one TSM server backing up to an IBM 3583 library with four LT04 drives. The current backup
environment
uses a GigE dedicated backup network. Which list of hardware components should be
documented and
provided to the customer in order to add the new servers to the backup infrastructure?
A. four HBAs and additional LT04 drives
B. five GigE NICs and additional LT04 drives
C. one HBAs, four GigE NICs, and additional LT03 drives
D. four HBAs, five GigE NICs, and additional LT04 drives
Answer: D

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NO.5 The proposed storage solution design must address the requirement for monitoring,
discovery of new
resources, and provide detailed information so that cost recovery (chargeback) of data
resources can be
accomplished. Which IBM product fulfills this requirement.?
A. IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
B. IBM Chargeback for Storage Networks
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Chargeback
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Enterprise Resource Planning
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the interview with the customer it is determined that there are no full time
employees assigned to
manage the storage infrastructure and that there will be a need for three IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager
(TSM) servers and over 2000 TSM clients. Which recommendation should be included in the
education
document?
A. that the customer call IBM Support if they have trouble
B. that the customer have their senior storage administrator administer the training
C. that the customer transfer two existing employees to this department and begin training
D. that the customer have their storage administrators work with IBM to schedule classes for
the products
to be implemented
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which application shows data storage trending for the customer's storage
requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Netcool
B. IBM Tivoli Asset Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
D. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.8 What should be done to complete the Solution Project after collecting customer
requirements and
educational/experience level of personnel, creating a solution design and proposal, and
presenting the
solution proposal?
A. have a formal IT Management sign-off on the purchase order
B. schedule a formal service review with the chief operations officer and staff
C. execute a formal review with the IT manager to confirm acceptance and solution
compliance
D. schedule a formal customer sign-off on the proposed Scope Document or Statement of
Work
Answer: D

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NO.1 At which data level do asset,locations,and purchase orders reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
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NO.2 Which two methods are available to migrate data from a legacy system to IBM
maximo Asset
management V7.1(MaM)(choose two)?
A. use a data mapping tool to link the legacy database to the MAM data warehouse and
update the MAM
data.
B. Extract data from the legacy system and create SQL.statements to insert the data directly
into the MAM
database.
C. connect the legacy database to the MAM database and synchronize the required data by
using an
external data mapping tool.
D. Extract data from the legacy system to comma-separated value files and use the data
import option of
the lntegration framework
E. restore the legacy database on the MAM database server,connect MAM to the legacy
database.and
reorganize the tables.view.and fields.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 if a customer has a requirements list,when is the best time to review this list with the
customer and
classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
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NO.4 What is the life cycle for a Migration Manager Package?
A. define,Create,Distribute,and Deploy.
B. create,Define,Distribute,and Deploy.
C. Create,Approve,Activate,and Distribute
D. Design,Approve,Populate,and Distribute.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The client has outlined in the discovery phase of the project that they want to
incorporate three
divisions,and each has a diferent chart of accounts with the same GL account
configuration.From this
information,how many organizations should be created for the solution is required to be
decided. How
many organizations should be created?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. three
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer wants to produce bar code labels for Assets containing specification
data,Which type of
requirement will this be considered as?
A. configuration
B. custom report
C. customization
D. class file extension
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which data is commonly imported into the IBM maximo asset management V7.1
through an interface
when integrated with an exatermal purchasing system ?
A. assets
B. work orders
C. vendor data
D. meter readings
Answer: C

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NO.8 which data type will be used in IBM maximo asset management V7.1 to accepet data
from an external
system which contains upper and lower case alphanumeric characters?
A. ALN
B. BLOB
C. TEXT
D. UPPER
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2150-199
Exam Name: IBM Security AppScan Standard Edition Implementation v8.7
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NO.1 Which statement is true about the passthru server?
A. The passthru server should be registered with its own Organizational-certifier ID for security
purposes.
B. The service does not support the use of IBM Lotus Domino clustering for passthru server failover.
C. An administrator can only use one passthru server in an on-premises environment.
D. The passthru server should be on the internal network.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The IBM Lotus Domino server being used for passthru at XYZ Corp is version 8.0. Although
this seems to work fine in the IBM SmartCloud Notes hybrid model, why should XYZ Corp consider
upgrading to at least version 8.5.2?
A. The passthru server would use less hardware resources.
B. The passthru server would be easier to manage and maintain.
C. The passthru server would support more connections.
D. The passthru session connection time would be reduced, enabling faster initiation of passthru
connections.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Conway's customer has two production IBM Lotus Domino domains. The first domain,
Renovations, has users both on-premises and in the service. The second domain, PowerRenov, only
has users on-premises. To route mail from PowerRenov users to Renovations users in the service ....
A. PowerRenov routes mail through Renovations.
B. a passthru server is required for each domain: Renovations and PowerRenov.
C. four mail hub servers are required: two in each on-premises Lotus Domino domain.
D. required Connection documents are automatically created by the Domain Configuration tool.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In the directory sync server settings of the IBM SmartCloud Notes administration portal, the
Sync Status is reported as Unable to Connect. Which of these SmartCloud Notes administration tools
is useful in problem determination?
A. The configuration test tool
B. The domain configuration tool
C. The preconfiguration test tool
D. The Internet domain verification tool
Answer: A

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NO.5 Once the hybrid account configuration is operational and a second directory server is to be
added, which of the following is true?
A. The customer administrator updates the IBM SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings
with the name of the server.
B. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and reruns the Domain Configuration Tool that was downloaded when the
initial account was configured.
C. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server, downloads and runs the Domain Configuration Tool.
D. The customer administrator updates the SmartCloud Notes administrator account settings with
the name of the server and calls IBM Support to confirm the update has been completed.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How do users who access IBM SmartCloud Notes using a browser receive credentials needed
for logging into SmartCloud Notes the first time?
A. Users receive a registration URL in an email sent by the SmartCloud team to the user's existing
mail account, then users are able to register their own credentials.
B. Users log into SmartCloud Notes using their IBM Lotus Notes client. Then, they open the
Welcome letter from the SmartCloud Notes team, which provides the needed credentials for
SmartCloud Notes.
C. Users access the URL for SmartCloud Notes from a browser, log in with the temporary login name
and password provided by the company administrator, then users can update their own login name
and password.
D. Users access the URL for SmartCloud Notes from a browser, log in with the login name and
temporary password provided by the company administrator, then users must update their
password on first login.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does running the Domain Configuration tool require?
A. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure.
B. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the IBM Lotus
Notes ID has write access to the on-premises IBM Lotus Domino Directory.
C. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure and the Lotus Notes
ID has write access to both the on-premises Lotus Domino directory and the passthru server's Lotus
Domino directory.
D. The computer running the tool is inside the customer network infrastructure or has a valid VPN
connection to it.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is required to route mail from external internet domains to users in the customer SMTP
domain who are hosted in the IBM SmartCloud Notes service?
A. A company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service
B. An SMTP server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users in
the service.
C. Either an SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the
users in the service or a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the
internet domain of the users in the service and domain verification has been completed for the
internet domain.
D. An SMTP host server in the service configured to accept mail for the internet domain of the users
in the service and a company-controlled SMTP host server configured to accept mail for the internet
domain of the users in the service.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following types of De-Duplication does TSM NOT support?
A. Client Side
B. Server Side
C. Switch based
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your Prospect is NOT interested in changing their competitive backup/recovery product. What
should you do?
A. Ask how long they've owned their software(s) and if they can confidently recover their data as
quickly as needed and are ready to handle their growth for next 3 years
B. Ask about their deduplication ratios and their encryption needs to comply with PCI and HIPAA
regulations that require change
C. Offer a Butterfly analysis to help them see their environment including current and future total
costs of running backup/recovery.
D. A and C
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of these is NOT a Competitor to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. CommVault
B. NetBackup
C. EMC Avamar
D. SpectraLogic
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which product is NOT included in the TSM Suite for Unified Recovery?
A. TSM for VE
B. TSM for DB's
C. TSM for SharePoint
D. TSM Fastback
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following does Server Hypervisors NOT provide?
A. Better utilization across many different types of disk
B. Pooled physical resources are consumed by virtual machines resulting in high asset utilization
C. Virtual machines are mobile giving CIO's their choice of physical server device
D. A common set of value capabilities and centralized management are provided for virtual
machines regardless of what physical server they are sitting on
Answer: A

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NO.6 Can EMC and HP provide the same function as a storage hypervisor?
A. Regardless type of disks
B. Regardless of the vendor of disks
C. Only on their own brand of disks
D. Only on IBM disk
Answer: C

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NO.7 What Common capabilities does a Storage Hypervisor provide?
A. Encryption
B. Increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver
C. Better Storage Management
D. Scheduling
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which is NOT true about using the Butterfly Analysis?
A. It opens the door to conversations with competitively installed accounts
B. Installs agents on the backup clients to collect business information and run analytics
C. Shortens sales cycles by exposing problems and creating a sense of urgency
D. Quantifies the financial benefits of migrating from a competing solution to IBM
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2010-574
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Exam Code: P2140-049
Exam Name: IBM Rational Focal Point Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Name: IBM Tealeaf Customer Experience Management V8.7, Business Analysis
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NO.1 How many Session Attributes can users define?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 64
D. Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.2 An event modeler is tasked with creating a report that shows the percent of sessions with
failed searches. The event modeler creates a new event to record failed searches. What should be
chosen to track this event?
A. Every Hit
B. First per Session
C. Every Occurrence
D. First Hit of Session
Answer: B

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NO.3 A business analyst needs to create an event that fires only when a user types in "tea" into a
form when on page Z.
There are two events already configured which will be used for this new event. Event A tracks page
Z and Event B tracks the input of ea?configured which will be used for this new event. Event A tracks
page Z and Event B tracks the input of ?ea? In the Event Creation Wizard, what must be set as the
evaluator for the new event condition to fire correctly?
A. Any
B. All
C. Last Hit
D. Distance Between
Answer: B

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NO.4 An event modeler has created a new event that fires at the end of a session. Which would NOT
receive a value?
A. A hit attribute
B. A session attribute
C. A distance event
D. A sequence event
Answer: A

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NO.5 The marketing department asks the business analyst to track the number of customers who
continue through the checkout flowthree pages sequentially. The analyst already has an event
configured to fire for each of three respective pages. Which of the following would the analyst use?
A. A sequence event with the condition set as events A and C firing in order.
B. A sequence event with the condition set as events A, B and C firing in order.
C. A distance event with evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
D. A sequence event with the evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
Answer: B

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NO.6 Create a new event that fires when the Coupon Code event exists on hit, but the Coupon Code
Entry Value dimension value is "valid'.
Answer: C

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5. A business analyst has been assigned to evaluate the behavior of customers making multiple
attempts in a new registration process. Which event should be created?
A. An event that tracks abandonment from the first step.
B. An event that tracks failure at the registration submission.
C. An event that captures the distance between the start and completion in hits.
D. An event that fires when the required steps are present but not in the correct sequence.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An event modeler is tasked with creating a new hit attribute to capture the text displayed to
customers on the home page. The modeler is also asked to provide a report of the values generated.
The text value is displayed in a DIV tag on the home page called yCompanyDiv8?to provide a report
of the values generated. The text value is displayed in a DIV tag on the home page
called ?yCompanyDiv8? Which should the modeler use to configure the hit attribute?
A. Text Pattern
B. Step Pattern
C. Custom Tags
D. Start Tag/End Tag
Answer: D

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NO.8 A business analyst is working with a coupon code entry field, and wants to make an event that
fires when the value entered is not a valid coupon code. There are 3000 valid coupon codes.
How can this be accomplished?
A. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value on the coupon code hit attribute.
3.Create a new event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry event does not fire on the relevant hit,
and apply the Coupon Code Entry Valuedimension.
B. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty
2.Create a dimension for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create an event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry exists on the hit with a value of "invalid".
4.Add the Dimension Coupon Code Entry Value to the new event.
C. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create a group with the valid entries listed named "valid'.
4.Create an event that fires when the Coupon Code Entry event fires, but the Coupon Code Entry
Value dimension value is not "valid'.
D. 1. Create an event called "Coupon Code Entry" that fires when the coupon code hit attribute is
not empty.
2.Create a dimension text group list for Coupon Code Entry Value.
3.Create a group with the valid entries listed named "valid'.
4.Apply that dimension to the Coupon Code event.

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NO.1 True or false: the CRISP-DM Process Methodology is a linear process.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?
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D. Statistics File
Answer:A

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NO.3 How many phases are in the CRISP-DM Process Methodology?
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer:C

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